Livia feels poorly is a perfectly acceptable in UK English - it means she feel unwell. Livia feels bad, by contrast, is an emotional description, e.g. she feels bad about what she did/said...it wouldn't be used to comment on her health
I have to completely disagree. Poorly is an adverb, the meaning of 'Livia feels poorly' is 'Livia is bad at the act of feeling' while the intent of the sentence is to convey that her state of being/health/mood is bad. Further, I have never heard anyone use this phrase in either US or UK English. Livia feels bad/unwell/poor are all grammatically correct. The current phrase sounds poorly. It is not phrased goodly. Is my meaning clearly?
"Male" IS an adverb, the adverbial form of the adjective malus. Translating an adverb with an adverb is more accurate. Regarding English grammar, a verb, in this case "feels", is modified by and adverb not an adjective. You should really think about getting a book and learning some grammar!
"Feels" is modified by an adverb. Very good, Bert. Gold star for you. The problem, as I said in my post (which you might want to re-read and try harder to comprehend) is that Livia's ability to feel is not what is in question. Livia herself, a noun, is in a negative state of being. Nouns are modified by adjectives. Congratulations on figuring on that "male" is an adverb in Latin. I now encourage you to ask yourself if English grammar and Latin grammar are the same. The English sentence lacks the explicit reflexivity of the Latin. "You understood me poor." Wrong. It's "you understood me poorly", because your understanding of my comment was the problem, not you. On the other hand, "Bert seems pompously." Wrong. Bert himself, a noun, is the possessor of the bad attitude, not the innocent verb "seems". "Bert seems pompous." Now that sounds much more nicely... Ahem... NICE to me.
Yes, but in order to learn the nuances of a language we have to sometimes let the funky sounding translations slide. Generally you have to balance literacy and contextuality with eachother in order to get the best grasp of a language.
Havet wouldn't be correct, but you should be able to switch the words in this case. I believe?
It wouldn't - the reflexive pronoun 'se' is necessary. (like in French e.g. se lever)
Would you mind explaining why the reflexive pronoun is necessary here? I don't want to miss any nuances.
Because a reflexive verb has always a reflexive pronoun. You could translate it literally: ' she feels (herself) bad.'
Same than in French "se sentir" (feel). It's an expression, if you just says "sentir", it means that you feel something exterior to yourself (smell, cold, etc..) . Se sentir means that you feel inside yourself (your health or emotional state).
Se in French = oneself. Referring to an action made on ourselves. Se lever (wake up I "pull" myself out of the bed), se laver (wash, but "oneself"), se suicider (kill oneself), se colorer (color oneself) etc... can be used limitless when the meaning allows it.
It is the reflexive 3rd person singular pronoun.
It is the accusative form of the personal pronoun. It can be used in various ways. In this case it affects the meaning just as se in haberse, but in Latin it is never considered to be a part of the actual verb. It's more of an extra that means the action is directed to the subject.
It's more like in French, because Spanish concatenate the verb and the reflexive particle.
"Livia does poorly" is at least as good in my dialect, I think, (to signal that she feels unwell or feels bad) though "poorly" for how someone feels isn't great with either verb. A translation that isn't so dialect specific might be better.
I have found several errors today. The text presented was "Livia he male has" NOT "Livia se male habet".
I can't decide if I hate the man's or the woman's voice more...
To be fair, I appreciate that they took the trouble of manually recording classical Latin pronunciation instead of leaving us to guess or a computer to confuse everyone. But point taken.