That's very interesting to note, but no English words (except some science and law vocabulary) comes directly from Latin, here father is from Old English fæder, from old Germanic (proto-Germanic) fader, and mother from Old English moder/modor, old Germanic mōdēr. Not directly from the Latin, so it's probably only a coincidence, but one interesting to note.
Fader -> Father. Moder -> Mother
That's right there's a "a" and a "o", so what you said is not impossible, that it kept the "a/o" distinction from the same origin. But Proto-germanic is not derivated from Latin.
Well that’s one example from one author.
The verb “to be” often occurred at the end, like other verbs often did. But it also often was placed between the things it was linking.
Here is an another example from Caesar, the same author you cited: “Gallia est omnis divisa in partes tres.”
That's not a good example, since there "iacta est" is the verb (it's the perfect passive tense), and it is actually quoted by Suetonius as "iacta alea est", which if anything shows off Latin's flexibility, since the subject is actually placed in the middle of the verb: "cast the die has been".
There is certainly no strict rule about verb placement in Latin. In Cicero's writings, to take Latin's most revered and imitated prose writer as one example, fewer than half of the sentences end with a verb.
In any written work, or oral conversation, there would be enough context to distinguish which one to use in a translation. The same was true for humans. A lack of articles was not a problem because all real interactions with the language provided plenty of context. It only becomes difficult in these artificial solitary sentence exercises.