1. Forum
  2. >
  3. Topic: Latin
  4. >
  5. "Romae habitas."

"Romae habitas."

Translation:You live in Rome.

August 28, 2019

34 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Antogs2

Is it you because of the inflection of 'romae' or 'habitas'?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/prompto99

It's you because of Habitas

In Portuguese (for example) to say "You live" you can also say "(Tu) habitas"

Romae is just inflected to say "In Roma" I guess but I'm no Latin expert


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AnastasiaStyIes

Mnemonic for which words use the locative:

"Towns, small islands, domus and rus—no preposition is in use"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/norto

Yes, Romae is in a "locative case", the noun case about place, which is a minor case used only with some specific place like Rome (Romae), home (domi) and etc. but very very few. It gives a meaning of "at the place" or "in the place". The course just ignore to say about the locative case at all (at this point), maybe to avoid confusion if too many grammar rules are introduced at this point. Or maybe, they think it's too much in detail to talk about locative now.

More information here in wiki https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Locative_case#Indo-European_languages


[deactivated user]

    Why is it "Romae" for "in Rome" but "in Italia", not "Italiae" for "in Italy"?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/JaJsemAdam

    "Romae" is the locative case of "Roma". In Classical Latin, the locative had almost disappeared and was used only for names of cities, small islands and a few other words, including "domus" (locative "domi") and "rus" (locative "ruri"). Other words do not have a locative form, so you have to use "in" with the ablative, as in "in Italia".


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/LaKatoGranda

    Tú "habitas" el lugar/You live in (inhabit) the place. Yo "habito" el lugar/I live in(inhabit) the place. Spanish ^


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Eva242549

    Why would Romae habitasne be wrong--would it not make sense, meaning "Do you live in Rome?" Or was it wrong because there wasn't a question mark?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/cool-person1

    I believe the -ne ending only goes after the first word of the sentence


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Eva242549

    Thanks -- my book said "usually" so I wasn't sure how strict the rule was:)


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PERCE_NEIGE

    Wiktionary about -ne:
    "Added to the end of a word in a phrase (usually the first word) to make it a question"

    The exceptions to this "usually" rule seems to be here (Wiktionary)

    A question requiring an answer of "yes" or "no" is formed by adding -ne to the emphatic word:
    Is tibi mortemne vidētur aut dolōrem timēre?
    Does it seem to you to be death that he fears or pain?

    About the use of the enclitic suffix "-ne".
    From: http://latindiscussion.com/forum/latin/how-to-form-questions.6418/

    The most common way to form a question is to add -ne to the word you want to ask about:

    Mē amās. You love me. Amāsne me? Do you love me (or not)? Mēne amās? Do you love me (or someone else)? Tūne mē amās? Is it you who loves me?

    Note that the syllable immediately preceeding -ne is stressed, even if it's short.

    You can question the whole statement with the word ecquid:

    Ecquid mē amās? Do you love me?

    If answer "yes" is expected, then the word nōnne is used instead:

    Nōnne mē amās? Do you love me? (I think you do.)

    On the contrary, if "no" is expected, then one of the following words is used: num or numquid (the latter for more emphasis):

    Num mē amās? Numquid mē amās? Do you love me? (I strongly doubt that you do.)

    Negative answer is nōn. For positive answers the verb (or the questioned word) is often repeated, sometimes with some other words:

    Amāsne mē? - Amō. Do you love me? - I do. Mēne amās? - Ita est, tē amō. Do you love me? - It is so, I love you. Num mē amās? - Immō tē multum amō. Do you love me? (doubtfully) - Indeed I love you very much.

    (...)
    The normal position for this -ne is the end of the first word of the sentence

    Also, this -ne is not used where this is some other specific question word. For example, ‘Why do you love me?’ is ‘Cūr mē amās?’.

    As in all languages, certain sorts of questions can be made just with intonation and context: ‘Mē amās?’ = ‘You love me?’

    (...)
    Annōn is used in direct questions, necne usually only in indirect questions.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PERCE_NEIGE

    I read that "-n" is the alternative form for "-ne". When is it?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/OzXDkf

    Is "Romæ" wrong?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Cytryn7

    Shouldn't "Romae" be pronounced like "Rome"? Because "ae" and "oe" are diphthongs and sound like "e"


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Danielconcasco

    No, in Classical Latin the ae and oe did not sound the same as e.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Babakkarami_93

    Is there a difference between habitas and hanitasne?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AnthonyDonnelly

    Habitas is the statement "you live" and habitasne is the question "Do you live". I don't know whether or not in Latin you can inflect your voice for "habitas" and make it a question.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/CristopherLira

    I have some problem with the pronunciation in the words with "ae", in the highschool i had a teacher that teach me the sound ae sounds like only "eh" and many words in my lenguaje (Spanish) sound like this, i don't know what to do


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Danielconcasco

    No, there is nothing wrong with the pronunciation. In the reconstructed Classical pronunciation, ae sounded like the English word eye (more or less).


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/CristopherLira

    http://publicaciones.ustatunja.edu.co/ebook/DRomano/HTML/files/assets/common/downloads/page0032.pdf en las primeras lineas comenta algo similar a lo que comente anteriormente, solo he visto en publicaciones de habla inglesa en su mayoria que las dos letras las digan literal


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Danielconcasco

    Ae and e most definitely did not make the same sound in Classical Latin. That change happened at the end of the Roman period.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Danielconcasco

    Here is a basic guide to the Classical pronunciation. http://jlong1.sites.luc.edu/L101pron.htm

    AE is a diphthong. That means both vowels made a sound. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diphthong The a was definitely not silent. We know this from Latin poetry. By the very end of the Roman period, the AE had become an E sound, but that's wasn't always the case.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AaronD.2

    Rómæ habitás.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Snailow1

    And i thought latin was easy


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Ben422643

    Romae is the locative, making the correct translation "at Rome".


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/DonaldDuck

    "You live at Rome" is very old-fashioned English. "You live in Rome" is much more idiomatic for 21st-century English, and equally expresses the concept of location.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PERCE_NEIGE

    The locative can be "in" or "at".

    It's rather "in", considering it's used for cities/towns (you live in New York), small islands (you live in Hawaii), domus (at home/in home), ruri (in the country), humi (on the ground).

    Learn Latin in just 5 minutes a day. For free.