- Forum >
- Topic: Latin >
- "Livia se bene habet."
44 Comments
I'm guessing the "se" is the same reflexive "se" you find in most Romance languages, and "habet" would be the third person conjugation of "habere". Does this literally mean "Livia has herself fine"?
Here is the Spanish: " Livia se siente bien." "Livia feels herself to be well".
328
according to the given explanation, "livia has herself well" equals with "livia feels well or livia is feeling well" in meaning
Correct, it is pronounced as it is in English.
- 1300
Interestingly, in the previous sentence ('Livia se male habet'), H was pronounced and here it is missing. As far as I understand it could be done both ways - pronounced in Classical Latin and silent in Ecclesiastical version. But this should be a course of Classical Latin. So is this a mistake or perhaps there's any other explanation?
My money is on mistake. The intention is to teach Classical Latin, but the voices are all specially recorded by human beings, not automatically generated computer voices.
If the goal is to teach Classical Latin, why are we encouraged away from the use of macrons on long vowels when this use is attested in the literature?
- 458
Could this potentially mean "Livia is having a good time"? I'm asking because in Slovenian we would use the reflexive version of this verb for this very purpose.
The course contributors forgot to add that option to the database. Please flag it next time and report "My answer should be accepted."
After finishing the lesson but before moving on to the next lesson, click or tap the little flag icon. Some options should come up from there.
Ego me bene habeo. I keep myself well.
Tu te bene habes. You keep yourself well.
Livia se bene habet. Livia keeps herself well.
Marcus se bene habet. Marcus keeps himself well.
etc.
- 447
Yes, 'se' can be translated as himself, herself, itself or themselves. Se habere literally means to keep oneself and is often translated as 'esse'.
i don't understand this habere habit habito etc is used for doing, feeling, living etc. Can somebody explain me the logic behind this
"Habere" literally means "to have/hold/keep". By itself it indicates possession: Domum habeo. I have a house.
The reflexive form indicates the state of the person: Livia bene se habet. Livia holds herself well.
I think you're confusing "habere" with "habitare", which means "to reside/dwell". Romae habito. I live in Rome.
| HABERE | HABITARE |
|---|---|
| to have/hold/keep | to inhabit/dwell |
| ego habeo | ego habito |
| tu habes | tu habitas |
| is habet | is habitat |
| nos habemus | nos habitamus |
| vos habetis | vos habitatis |
| ei habent | ei habitant |
"Doing" is another verb altogether: "agere".
ago
agis
agit
agimus
agitis
agunt
"Quid agit Livia?" literally means "What is Livia doing?" but the Romans used it idiomatically to means what we do when we say "How is Livia?"
- 447
habeo = I have. habes = you (singular) have. habet = he,she or it has. habemus = we have. habetis = you (plural) have. habent = they have.
Why doesn't it accept "Livia is alright" for an answer? There's no indication that we're discussing Livia's physical well-being. >.>
- 1197
I think the verb here specifically refers to the feeling. So Livia might be alright, but she might not necessarily feel well/good.
- 447
habet means (literally} he, she or it has. habes means you (singular) have. It would therefore not be se habes but te habes. Hope this is clear.
In the previous sentence, it was Stephanus bene se habet, it's the same?
