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  5. "The woman writes, but the ma…

"The woman writes, but the man does not write."

Translation:Femina scribit, sed vir non scribit.

August 28, 2019

12 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Septimus734191

What about, "Femina, sed non vir, scribit"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/rocketginger

That would translate to "The woman, but not the man, writes." It doesn't make much sense in either languages.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Septimus734191

Well, in English, it is not at all uncommon to write a sentence like, "Fred drives, but not Wilma."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/rocketginger

Yes, but that's not what you said before, where you're saying "Fred, but not Wilma, drives." That sentence is, like I've said before, pretty weird/awkward to say in English or in Latin.

What you're saying now, "Fred drives, but not Wilma.", is the exact translation of the correct answer: "Femina scribit, sed vir non scribit."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Septimus734191

OK, well, the point I was making was not about the location of the verb: in Latin, it is very customary to put the verb at the end in a way that is normally not done in English. My point was not location of the verb, but rather, repetition of the verb. And to that end, I proposed a Latin sentence in which the verb is stated once, as well as an English sentence doing the same thing. So I'll re-cast my Latin sentence if that is necessary. How about: "Femina scribit, sed vir non"? Because your Latin sentence is not, in fact, "the exact translation," because the in the Latin sentence, the verb appears twice; and my whole point all along was to ask if this is necessary, in Latin, or not?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Trofaste

It is not necessary in Latin, however, since the English sentence does repeat the verb (which isn't required in English either) you should repeat it when translating this particular sentence.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/nate364184

No you can do that. A verb can be supplied to multiple clauses. I did the same thing and it even said it was correct for different a problem


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/rocketginger

Not saying it's necessarily wrong, but it really doesn't make a lot of sense.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/JojakimVer

Mulier scribit, autem homo non scribit Why was this wrong ;_;


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/rocketginger

Not exactly wrong, so I would report it. But keep in mind , homo usually means human, instead of man.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/DavidTsikl1

Would "femina scribit, sed vir non" be the correct answer?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Vlcik128SK

Yes. I've tried it.

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