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  5. "Nos Roma venimus."

"Nos Roma venimus."

Translation:We come from Rome.

August 29, 2019



What is the difference between come to/into and come from in Latin ?


The difference comes from the case of the noun. Here it's "from Rome" because the noun is in the ablative, Romā. If we wanted to say "to Rome" then we'd put the noun in the accusative, Romam venimus.


Thanks for answering. What is the difference between Roma and Romā ?


Roma is the nominative case; Romā (with a long final a) is the ablative case. Unfortunately, as in many of the audios on this course, the proper distinction in pronunciation is not being made. I've reported this as "The audio does not sound correct."


I think the pronounciation : ā is a long or stressed "a" or something ... Anyone knows better ?


It's only a matter of quantity (i.e. length), not stress. Both short and long syllables can be stressed or unstressed in Latin. Take for example the word "lībertās," where the stress is actually on the second syllable, even though it's the only syllable with a short vowel.


yes, it's exactly that! the different pronounciating is actually quite important, noting the case - roma is nominative, romā is ablative


Why not explicitly "Nos ab Roma venimus"?


Since Rōma is a city, it is allowed to use the locative case. Nouns that are allowed to use the locative also drop the preposition for place from which (Rōmā = 'from Rome', what is here) and place to which (Rōmam = 'to Rome').

A reference that may be helpful: http://individual.utoronto.ca/ajhicks/place_acc_abl_loc.pdf


When we use something else that a locative when the locative is possible, it's considered as wrong, so:

I think it's mandatory, not only allowed.


could i write "nos a roma venimus"?


How do you tell that "Roma" means "from Rome "and not "to Rome"? Do you have a cheat sheet on cases? I'm still having trouble with the lack in Latin of separate articles and prepositions.


If it were to mean "to Rome," it would need the accusative ending. That would make it "Romam." Giving a noun that ends in -a no additional suffix makes it either nominative, ablative or vocative. It can't be nominative because the verb is not in the third person sg, and anyway, we already have a subject; nos. So, it must be ablative, which usually answers "wherefrom" if no prepositions are involved. After some prepositions, the ablative may just answer "where."

By the way, you're not the only one who has issues with Latin's way of indicating locations. At least to me, it's really weird to have a case that answers both the questions "whom" and "whereto." It's also a pity that Latin has no allative, and that it uses the ablative so often to do the locative's job.


I don't think any Latin text would actually include 'nos' here, as 'venimus' includes that meaning.


Although technically I do agree, I can also see why they included the "nos" here. This is at the very beginning of the Latin course, so it is still advisable to emphasize on pronouns, learning the language via one that essentially only has pronouns to differentiate between persons.

  • 2616

100% what nerguy_pablo said. In this early lesson, part of what you're learning is which pronoun is associated with which conjugation. Additionally, everyone gets these sentences presented to them differently, and so someone might get this sentence as "Nos Roma _". In that case, the "nos" is what tells you that the answer could only be "venimus".


How do we know Roma is not the vocative, especially when they write it like Roma and not Romā? I know, they pronounce it correctly, but if we didn't have the audio, could this also mean something like "Rome, we're coming!"?


John, in that case it would be "Roma, ad te imus", remember venimus means to come from not to go to as in your example.


Macrons would be helpful for this program. 'Roma' = ablative, long 'a'. Standard practice in Latin courses to include the macrons.


Nos de Roma venimus. In pace venimus.


I thought that nos meant "you guys" and excluding myself. Why is it correct to use venimus instead of veniunt?

  • 2616

Vos is the plural you. Nos is "we".


Why is it "nos ab Italia venimus", but "nos Roma venimus"? Doesn't the ablative case happen when you use a preposition? So why "Romā" without the preposition "a"?


Nouns that are able to use the locative case like Rōma drop the preposition in place from which (Rōmā - 'from Rome' -not ā Rōmā) and place to which (Rōmam - 'to Rome' -not ad Rōmam) constructions.

  • 2616

Please refer to Moopish's reply to nicolaspiper above.


Thank you both! And sorry for asking. I should have noticed the answer above.

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