"The mother writes and the brother sleeps at home."
Translation:Mater scribit et frater domi dormit.
Does the position of the "domi" make any difference to who's at home? I.e. can it be implied that the mother is at home too while the "domi" is in the latter half of the sentence? If I said "Mater scribit domi et frater dormit", would it still sound like the brother is also at home?
As there is no coma in Latin, I think the "et" serves as a coordination word, separing the clauses.
Scribit mater ET domi dormit frater.
(by the way, I don't know if it would sound logical if I have something like Scribit mater ET domi frater dormit, not grammatically, I mean logically)
I think you can play with the order of the word in clause 1 (Mater scribit) and clause 2 (Frater dormit domi), but not place one word from one clause to the other one.
Mater scribit ET frater domi dormit.
Please, correct me if I say something's wrong.
I must say that I am not surprised. I I tried this as an experiment, and sadly I was correct in assuming it would not count it. "-que" is definitely a sufficient and incredibly common (see Vergil's frequent use of it in the Aeneid) alternative to "et." "-que" should almost always be accepted in place of "et."
In the English is pretty obvious that the brother is the one sleeping at home, but it could be ambiguous. I put dormi in the brother clause since in the English is proximity to brother would suggest that the brother sleeps at home different from what the mother is doing.
I haven't come across "in domi".
"Domus" is one of the very small handful of common nouns that have the locative case, which is primarily used with the names of cities/towns and small islands. All other nouns take "in" plus the ablative case. If "domus" did not have the locative, it would be "in domu".
Further information: Linguists are about as certain as they can be about the relationship between the various Indo-European languages and the existence of PIE. The educated guesswork comes in attempting to reconstruct what it might have sounded like. That's why it's called Proto-Indo-European but Latin is not "Proto-Romance": because Latin is fully attested. If we knew nothing about Latin and needed to reconstruct it from the extant Romance languages, then it would be called "Proto-Romance" and not "Latin". I would not say "Asian" languages, though, as that can be misleading. This is the IE family tree:
No. The locative case does not take any prepositions.
Here is a plain-English overview of what the cases are and how they work:
Latin cases, in English
Adjectives must agree in gender, number, and case with the nouns they modify, but they have their own declensions. Sometimes you get lucky and the adjective just happens to follow the same declension as the noun, but that is not a guarantee.