"My sons do not sleep."
Translation:Filii mei non dormiunt.
So in many Romance languages, plurals are conjugated in masculine if they refer to a group of mixed gender (e.g. in French, les étudiants sont heureux; it's only heureuses if they're all female). Is it the same in Latin? In which case, could this mean "My children do not sleep", as well?
I think it is the same in Latin, however I believe the word for 'children' may be used instead.
That makes sense. But that rule probably still comes up in other cases, then, so it's good to know. Thank you.
Don't forget the masculine for mixed plural is a kind of neutral. People think that "Masculin always outweights feminin". It's only the mnemotechnics, not the grammar role.