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"Are you wearing a hat, Seth?"

Translation:هَل أَنْتَ لابِس قُبَّعة يا سيث؟

August 30, 2019



هل تلبس قبعة يا سيث؟


انت is not necessary because the faa3il or actor of the verb is already expressed in the conjugation of لبس to تلبس. So, the sentence "هل تلبس قبعة" should be correct.


With لابس, it is, though, because an agent noun doesn't conjugate for person.


tsuj1g1r1, but isn't the 2nd person made clear by the يا مايك? This situation also occurs in Russian, and the pronoun can be omitted when context makes it clear which person is meant.


Well, does "Are wearing a hat, Mike?" work in English because "Mike" makes it clear that it is the second person? Each language has its own rules; Russian and Arabic don't work the same just because they are both 'foreign' languages! :P


English, with its lack of inflection, is less likely to make such omissions. And even French, which does have full conjugations, does not omit the subject, even though the verb is enough to tell you which person it is. But Russian resembles Arabic in having fully-fledged conjugations, where the pronoun is sometimes omitted in both languages, but, also like Arabic, but unlike eg Latin and Greek, has some verb tenses that don't conjugate, and only agree with the subject in number and gender, and Russian, for one, unlike English, or French, can still omit the pronoun subject if context is enough for clarity. That's why I was curious to know if Arabic did the same. I shall ignore your insult regarding foreign languages.


Oh yeah, I see you've totally ignored it, haven't you? Japanese is a pro-drop language even though it doesn't conjugate verbs for person AT ALL. And you yourself just contradicted yourself by saying that French doesn't omit pronouns. That's exactly the point I'm trying to get through to you. It has NOTHING to do with whether a language has "fully-fledged conjugations," whatever the hell that means. Russian is as similar to Arabic as French is; you chose to group Russian and Arabic together in your own mind because you conceive of them as both existing in the same 'foreign plane', that's on you, but actually, in some ways, Arabic is more like French! Plus, who told you Arabic has tenses that don't conjugate? لابس is not a tense; in fact, it's not even a verb, it's a noun. That's why it doesn't conjugate. It's like Latin '-ens', which also doesn't inflect for person. And I already stated in my comment that Arabic DOESN'T allow omitting the pronoun in this context, so what, pray tell, were you curious about?


Excuse my ignorance, but is "faa3il or actor of the verb" anything more esoteric than "subject", or, where a passive verb is involved, "agent"?


No, 'faa3il' is just the subject of a verbal sentence. The subject of a passive sentence is called 'naa2ib al-faa3il,' but that's the patient, not the agent. A nominal sentence has a mubtada2 though, not a faa3il, and if its predicate happens to have a verb, we simply 'assume' a resumptive pronoun as a subject for the verb. So in كيتي تتعلم العربية "Katie learns Arabic," we assume that the sentence says "Katie, she learns Arabic," and then we say that the "she" we pulled out of thin air is the real subject of the verb, because "Katie" can't be as the mubtada2.


لابسٌ قبّعةً ؟


So is Seth a male or a female?


Male. He was the third son of Adam and Eve, so Seth is a name that you find in Christianity, Judaism, and Islam, though it seems to be very rare in Christianity now.

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