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  5. "Soror in urbe est."

"Soror in urbe est."

Translation:The sister is in the city.

August 30, 2019



Could this also be "The sister is in a city."?


Yes, because Latin doesn't have any "a" or "the".


Yes, it can.

Did you report it?


"urbe" is ablative. but duo shows it as the nominative in this lesson. it was impossible to report this mistake, so I'm writing it on this discussion. true word is "urbs," not "urbe." if the "in" preposition precedes the word, it takes the ablative form, so "in + urbs = in urbe." but again, the nominative case is "urbs."


The problem here is if we introduce it as urbs, no student would recognize it later as urbe. They are simply showing you that urbe means city. They never claim it's nominative.


it's a strange approach. but "urbe" does not mean "city." it could utmost mean "from the city, in the city" etc. no latin student can find the ablative form on any dictionary, so you should show the nominative as well.


You can't say urbe doesn't mean city. It absolutely means city, but carries extra information about its place in the sentence.

Teaching students the form used right now is a common teaching method and effective for not overwhelming students.

Edit you don't teach Latin by throwing cases at students before they know how cases work. Giving the dictionary entry with each new word would be a great way to scare students off


Please explain what the ablative case is. Without that explanation, the comment doesn't help much.



Latin is a declension language. It means that nouns, pronouns and adjectives take different forms depending on their grammatical function.

Those forms are called "cases". There are six of them in Latin (seven if you count the rarely used locative). Ablative is one of them and is used in many grammatical contexts (it is often referred to as a "catch-all" case). For a more comprehensive explanation, you can look here : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ablative_(Latin)

In the sentence at hand, the words adopting the ablative case are "in urbe". They are put in ablative because the preposition "in" + the noun in ablative indicates we are speaking of a place with no movement involved.


Latin derivations: urban, sorority.


Can I say this sentence as "Soror est in urbe"?

It makes more sense to me


Latin has free word order (not considering locutions like "in urbe", these must come in the same order amongst themselves). You can use the SVO order, but SOV is much more common.


Good things to remember:

Soror: Sorority

Frater: Fraternity

Urbe: Urban

Mater: Maternal


Can this mean both "My sister is in town" (my city) "My sister is in the city" (another city)



Town is 'oppidum', city is 'urbs'.


"IN" is pronounced "A"?



No, it is pronounced "in" (like in English).


Do you always say the place before the action? I noticed this with domi dormit as well.


I wouldn't say it has to come before the verb but that is the more 'standard' order.


What is the difference between "es" and "est"? Is like in Spanish, "ser" for es and "estar" for est? I English I think there is not this difference of the verb "to be", which refers to both.


Es - you are

Est - he/she/it is

They are both forms of esse.


This has logic about ethimologic, I guess. "Est" for "est-ar" and "es" for "ser" (as in third person of singular: "él/ella es" [he/she is]).

Guess I am right. Can you confirm it or give your opinion? Thanks.


No, estar comes from the Latin stare and has no connection to est.

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