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  5. "Yes, I feel fine."

"Yes, I feel fine."

Translation:Ita, me bene habeo.

August 31, 2019



Ita, bene me habeo is correct, no?


Yes, Duolingo has problems with Latin word order


I think it could go either way, really


I just reported it


Marked as correct 2020-05-19


In Spanish you say "me siento" and never "siento me" there are exceptions but in ancient literature. Spanish is a Latin language.


Why can't I omit "me"? "Ita, bene habeo" should be correct.


That was my answer, the me is implied in the ending right? Otherwise habeo would have a different ending instead of first person singular


Just wondering: isn't there a difference between 'habere' and 'se habere'? If there isn't then you are right. But if they have two different meanings, you can leave out 'ego', but not 'me'.


I believe it's because the -o ending in habeo already implies "I...", wherein the verb "habere" means "to hold", hence when conjugated to "habeo" it means: "I hold...".

"Me" means myself/me, thence, "I hold myself..." and finally "bene" means well."

"So, literally, it means, "I hold myself well." "Me bene habeo"

I think it's a Latin idiom, an expression, perhaps equivalent to the English, "How are you holding up?"


No, "me" is what is being held ("myself"). "Ego" is omitted here because it's included in the verb. An alternative answer including "Ego" could be "Ita, ego me bene habeo".


Thats what she said


Why is it "me" in this translation and not "ego"?


Should ita vero also be accepted?


I think the better order is "bene me"


I understand that word order is relatively free with Subj. Obj. Verb preferrably and some groupings should stay together.. I am having a hard time figuring out the preferred word order with these exercises as the orders they give us IN Latin to translate are sometimes different and several variants are accepted as correct when translating TO Latin- when you click on comments it brings you to a thread with the same words not necessarily same order, is this the preffered order?

Ex: I put=Ita bene me habeo it says under comments= Ita, me bene habeo

Is the latter "more" correct?


Would "Ita, ego bene se habet" not work? What would I be saying if I used that?


I believe it would say something like, "Yes, I, hold him/herself well."

The -et at the end of habet clues us in that the context of the sentence is 3rd person, wherein "habere" is the verb "to hold": therefore, meaning "him/her holds".

The "se" is reflexive of the person being referred in 3rd person, meaning "him/her-self".

Like in English idioms, we say "What's up/how are you holding up?" to mean, How are you?, Latin also has idioms - and this is one of those, which literally means "I hold myself well": "(ego) me bene habeo".

Habeo = I hold Habes = you hold Habet = He/she holds

Me = myself Te = yourself Se = his/herself

bene = well/fine


Thanks, this really does clear things up and explains things very well.


isn't "Ita, ego sentio bene." correct?


Yes = ita est, also


Ita means yes? What a language


What do you mean?


I think that "etiam" bene me habeo is correct too.


Why is it "me" and not "mea" is one the femine?


Why do you need me in this sentence?; is it just emphatic or does it serve some grammatical purpose i dont understand


I understand that word order is relatively free, but is this splitting of the reflexive pronoun and the verb common? I'm speaking from a Spanish background where the have to go together. You couldn't insert a word in between like that and say "me bien siento" or something. Would "bene me habeo" work or is "me bene habeo" more common?

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