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  5. "Do you live in Rome?"

"Do you live in Rome?"

Translation:Habitasne Romae?

August 31, 2019



Why is it "habitasne Romae" instead of "habitasne in Romae"?


Adding -e to the end of a city name makes the word "in [insert city name] (for example Romae = in Rome) so habitasne in Romae would translate to "Do you live in in Rome?". Hope this helps.


But, then, why is "Habitasne in Italia"?


Countries are, for reasons I don't know, exceptions


The "ae" at the end of cities is an example of the locative case, which is only used with names of cities, small islands and a few other words, including domus (house - you probably remember "domi" from the first lesson) and rus (countryside). For other words, you have to use "in".


Thank you for your help.


Strictly speaking "in ____" would be locative too but rather than being conjugated the case is shown with a helper word. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grammatical_case


It's the other way. It's towns and cities (and small islands) that are exceptions.

Countries works the regular way, with no locative, and with in+country.


Adding -e to the end of a city name makes the word "in [insert city name] (for example Romae = in Rome)

That's not really true. I mean: that is true for this sentence, but not with another word with a different ending.

It's the locative, and the locative is not always "ae". For instance Domus->Domi, Novum Eboracum -> Novi Eboraci.

And, the other part that is not very true, is that you can use the locative to mean "in....+..."

It's not true, it's true only for words that accepts the locative.

The locative can only be used with: cities/towns, small islands.

And some rare words like humus, rus, and domus.


You are not actually adding "e" to the end of a city name. "Romae" is locative case which normally is a form identical to the Genitive (possessive) case. This works for nouns of the first and second Declension. However, nouns in the third Declension use the ablative (singular) ending, "e".


thank you for this! :)


Thank you for the help.


I believe Romae is tha locative case


Because "Romae" is in the Locative case. The locative does not have a preposition. The other locative word being used is "domi" meaning "at home". Likewise, "Romae" means "at Rome"; however, in English we say "in Rome".


¿Any reason for rejecting ‘Romae habitasne?’?


The -ne suffix is added to the end of the first word in the sentence


Romaene habitas is also rejected.


It changes the meaning.

Romaene habitas = Do you live in Roma (really in Roma, or elsewhere).


It's supposed to be on the verb


Not necessarily. The -ne suffix is usually on the focus of the question, which would normally come at the start of the sentence, so if you're asking "Do you live in Rome?" (as opposed to living somewhere else) I should have thought that you would phrase it as "Romaene habitas?", but if your asking "Do you live in Rome?" (as opposed to just visiting it) then "habitasne Romae?" would be the way to express it.


Yes, it's usually on the first word, and usually on the verb. (Most of the cases)

But it's perfectly valid, if you need to change the meaning, to have it on noun, pronoun, or anything, and in a middle of a sentence.


Usually yes, but in some context, it can be used on words not being the first of the sentence, and not on the verb. It's just a thing to know, it's possible, but rare.


If I put "habitatis" it give me error, but if i click on "do you live" it comes up as one of the possible translations.

Why is "habitatis" not ok?


If it was saying "You live in Rome.", then it would be habitatis. However, because it is saying "Do you live in Rome?", it is habitasne. You add a -ne to the end of the verb if it is asking a question.


Adding a ne is optional, and not mandatory, according to the notes. It's also used for yes/no questions, rather than just questions as a whole.


I don't remember the -ne from my HS Latin classes in the late 1950's, when we read Caesar's Wars, and a review class about 5 years later.
When and where is it used?
It seems to be sort of like the Catalan que which introduces Yes/no questions.
At first I was wondering if it was a partative, like in French and Catalan.


Haha... It frequently shows up in the first or second lesson of a Latin one text. It's an "enclitic" (a form that just 'hangs on' to another word). Maybe you remember it in Cicero's first Catalinarian "nihilne....".


Can you say "Romaene habitas?" or is it incorrect grammar to put the ne suffix on something other than a verb? I tried it, but was marked incorrect.


Even adding a - ne to the end of the word, it renders an error. Do you live can be as well habitasne BUT ALSO habitatisne (Singular as well as Plural)


Shouldn't it be Ro-meh instead of Ro-ma-eh?


Why "Romae habitasne" is wrong while "habitasne Romae" is right? Both should be right


This is discussed in a earlier comment but the short of it is. The "ne" that makes this a question is put on the first word of the sentence to make it a question (interrogative). From what I understand putting on the Romae changes the meaning though I don't know what it changes it too. Know all of these rule aren't laws but they change the emphasis and this is the standard construction. PERCE_NEIGE has a comment explaining it more depth.

Basically both are right but they mean something different and it has to do with topicalization and emphasis.


To be correct, the NE gives a negative particle... So habitasne should be : don't you live ? And habitas : do you live ?


I don't think so. the -ne suffix just indicates a question with a yes or no answer. It is usually appended to the word that is the focus of the question, which would normally come at the start of the sentence, so if you're asking "Do you live in Rome?" (as opposed to living somewhere else) I should have thought that you would phrase it as "Romaene habitas?", but if your asking "Do you live in Rome?" (as opposed to just visiting it) then "habitasne Romae?" would be the way to express it.


I fully agree with you... In Latin like in German, you find the verb at the end of the sentence...


Why is "romae habitasne?" wrong?


I wrote 'Roma habitasne?' and it says it is wrong. Is this word order incorrect or should I flag this?


Why is Romae habitasne not accepted?


Romae habitasne is markwd incorrect. I don't think it shoild be.



"-ne" should be put after the very first word of the sentence/proposition.


Usually, yes, but there are some exceptions, found in classical texts. But it's very rare. So, rather uncommon. But still valid!


Why cannot we say Romae habitasne? It seems that the position of the words in Latin are quite arbitrary, just like in poetry to place emphasis in a word rather than another. Please, explain! Thanks!


Grammatically, you can (and you already know it if you read the previous comment on this page)

For the arbitrary position, it's totally wrong. For the emphasis, it's right.

I don't recommend you to use "Romae habitasne?" as it changes the meaning of the question, and in 90% of the cases the sentences are like "Habitasne Romae?". So, as we are beginners, we have to use every time we can this structure, rather than the uncommon one.


Romae habitasne = habitasne Romae would both be correct, but it still is wrong


Why not Romae habitasne??


Should "ae" sound like "ää"?



It depends on which pronounciation you chose to use.

In "restituted" pronounciation, each letter is pronounced separatedly.

In ecclesiastical or classical French pronounciation, you would say "ä"...

There were a lot of usages depending from time and place.


I thought the order of words in Latin doesn't matter due to the ending of the words dictate what part of the sentence they are....


Compared with English, word order in Latin is relatively free, but it is going too far to say "the order of words in Latin doesn't matter". Whole books have been written on the subject, and even Wikipedia has an article on Latin word order. A Google search on Latin word order will find a number of articles worth looking at.


So the previous time for in Italy it was in Italia and Italiae was denied but for Roma it is Romae and not in Roma. It doesn't make any sense...


For towns and small islands, the locative case is used. Rome counts as a town, so use of the locative case is applicable; for Italy, it is not. See Relations of Place from Allen and Greenough's New Latin Grammar for further details.


Duo didn't accept "Romæ" but insisted upon "Romae." Must is be "Romae" with separate A and E? Is that a difference between Classical and Ecclesiastical Latin?


All languages are based upon alphabets... For inetance Cyrillic for Russian, Ukrainian, Greek and others... Western countries rely on Roman one... In the this alphabet there is no AE attached in one letter, A and E are always separated... I don't know how the Ecclesiastical Latin writes words but as long as it is Latin, it uses Roman alphabet with no AE making one character...


That isn't much of an answer, I'm afraid, because 'Æ' does exist and I've often seen it used in Latin and other languages that use the Latin alfphabet. Certainly in Ecclesiastical Latin it's used very often. Perhaps it's just a stylistic thing.


It can only be "stylish"... Vowels are A, E, I, O and U. AE doesn't exist. The alphabet from A to Z doesn't include any AE letter. If I remember well, it is a character that you could find in the old Greek. Parsiphae is an example where A and E were attached. But I still think that it was for artistical reasons....


"ae" is what is known as a "ligature" in typography (OK I used to work as a printer before teaching classical languages for a thousand years). It's used in other instances such as "fi" written so that the bar (-) of "f" extends to be the dot (.) over the "I". It has nothing to do with the language itself.


Since Latin is so flexible, shouldn't "Romaene habitas?" Be correct?


Previously, I was corrected and the answer required was "habitasne in Romae" - I write them all down!



Maybe it was a bug because that sentence is not correct.

"Rome" is the name of a city. As such, we must use the locative when we use it to talk about the place the "action" is taking place without movement involved. There no need of the preposition "in" when using the locative.

So the correct sentence is : "Habitasne Romae?"

[deactivated user]

    Why is "habitasne Romae" correct? Why is "habitasne" offered only in lowercase?


    I'm guessing "Romae habitas?" is singular "you", while "Habitasne Romae?" is plural "you". Am I right?



    It does not work that way.

    Here is the conjugation of "habito/habitare":

    • (Ego) habito
    • (Tu) habitas
    • (Is/Ea/Id) habitat
    • (Nos) habitamos
    • (Vos) habitatis
    • (Ii/Eae/Ea) habitant

    So the conjugation in the sentence at hand would be:

    • singular "you" => Habitas Romae?
    • plural "you" => Habitatis Romae?

    However, that question is a yes-or-no question. In those questions, you usually tag the verb (which is usually first in the sentence) with "-ne", which indicates the sentence is a yes-or-no question. It can be pretty useful because Latin did not have punctuation marks for a long time, so no "?" to help the reader know he was dealing with a question.

    So the correct way to ask "Do you live in Rome" is:

    • singular "you" => Habitasne Romae?
    • plural "you" => Habitatisne Romae?


    Should romae habitasne be accepted?


    Not Romae habitasne? Marked wrong. I thought word order is free in Latin


    Is "Romae" same as "Romæ" word?


    Why is "Romae habitasne" not correct? I thought the verb was at the end most of the time... is it not the case with questions?

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