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  5. "Interdiu ad templum advenis."

"Interdiu ad templum advenis."

Translation:During the day you arrive at the temple.

August 31, 2019



In the audio, the verb is stressed on the final syllable, which (we're told) is not correct. (EDIT: I believe the audio has been redone since this comment.)


What I hear is the verb stressed on the first syllable (ádvenis). I think it should be stressed on the second-to-last one: advénis.


You arrive ‘to’ the temple?


You're right, "arrive TO" is strange; "arrive AT" is what we say. In any case, it will be advenīre + AD + accusative, in Latin.


Why do all the English translations use this totally-artificial order? No native speaker would ever utter an atrocity like "During the day you arrive at the temple". In the unlikely event that we'd want to express this thought, we'd say "You arrive at the temple during the day". English is an SVO language.


English certainly does have introductory clauses BEFORE the subject of the sentence.

The majority of our speech is this way.


Why does it need "ad" when ad is in the word advenis


Actually, we often find a prefix on the verb (like the ad- here, on advenis) "repeated" in the preposition in the same sentence; they liked it, apparently.

In any case, a verb of motion, like advenis, can't govern a direct object; "You arrive at the temple." You can't 'arrive the temple' (the way you could build the temple, or destroy the temple, or see the temple). There has to be a preposition (like ad = to) that gets you from the verb to the place.


There is no repetition, advenis is a word in itself, it means arrive, is not ad venis, though it is its etymology. Just like in English, arrive needs at so does advenis using ad templum


You could say, in English, "You reach the temple," and that would be an accurate translation of this Latin sentence (Ad templum advenis ); however, it would use a direct object ("the temple") instead of a prepositional phrase (the Latin ad templum ).

It is a feature of Latin, that the prefix on the verb and the preposition used in the same sentence, are often 'the same' word. My feeling is that they liked and appreciated the unity provided (what I was calling "repetition").


If, in the Lord's Prayer, "adveniat regnum tuum" means "thy kingdom come" , why can't advenis mean come?


It does mean "you come," with a built-in "to" (that's the ad, which governs the place to which you come, if it's specified).

(adveniat in the prayer is a 3rd person subjunctive indicating a wish--May it come, let it come--called a jussive subjunctive.)


'Ad' + Accusative = At 'Ad' + Dative = To

Am I right?


There's no ad + dative; whatever the meaning of ad (whether "to/toward" or "at" or "for (a purpose)"), it is always followed by the accusative case.

They sit at the door = Ad iānuam sedent.

They run to the tree = Ad arborem currunt.

They call us to dinner = Ad cēnam nōs vocant.

The dative, alone, with no preposition, is used to mean "to/for" when designating a recipient:

I tell Marcus a story = Marcō fābulam nārrō .

They give the captives to Caesar = Caesarī captīvōs trādunt .

(Notice that, in English, we have the choice of using "to" for the dative ( = indirect object) of of leaving it out:

I give him the book = I give the book TO him. )


Quelle est la difference entre "advenis" et "advenitis " ? Merci !!!


Advenīs is 2nd person singular (tu is the understood subject), and advenītis is 2nd person plural (Latin didn't have a "vous" form, but this would be it!).

Analogous to, if I remember my French, "tu arrives" and "vous arrivez," respectively.


I see the combination of inter+ dies but what form of dies is this?


The word interdiū is just an adverb; it's not a declined form of diēs, diēī , m., "day."


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