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  5. "Marcus a Germania venit."

"Marcus a Germania venit."

Translation:Marcus comes from Germany.

September 3, 2019

40 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Nick_Pr

A very Roman name for a barbarian.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Isaac3972

It never said he was born there. Could be coming back from campaign. . .


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Semeltin

Yeah, it would be really cool if we had a Romanized Germanic name here! Also, Roman cities and an ancient theme would make this course cooler.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PERCE_NEIGE

The funniest, is that there are some people named Markus now in Germany, and no more in Rome.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Nathalie975642

They must be called Marco in Rome, isn't it?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/MartinRaja

Marcus Reus - Borussia Dortmund football player


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Talos_the_Cat

Marco, sure, Heja BVB


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Daniel17387

A lot of popular Spanish surnames are Romanized versions of Germanic names (Gonzalez is a popular one)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Katzenperson

What was the original Germanic form of Gonzalez?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/TheLandingEagle

Minime! Marcus est iuvenis americanus.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/DonaldDuck

Can "venit" imply the person was born there?

In (C21st) English, when we say someone "comes from" a place, that's an idiomatic way of saying they were born there or have lived there long-term. It's not really a way of saying they just happen to be arriving from there right now.

So I'm wondering if venit has implications like English "comes from", or if the sentence just means "Marcus is coming / has come from Germany".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Martin358481

True, I doubt that venio had the "origin" implication of the English idiom; it only referred to motion as in "come (back) from or come to(wards) a place or location". To express the former, the Romans would have probably just used an adjective of origin instead: "Marcus ((who) comes) from Germany" = Marcus Germanicus, vel sim.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Nick_Pr

I don't believe so, but perhaps someone can correct me with an example.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/SeanMeaneyPL

Not sure, but I don't think so. "Natus est"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/SuzanneNussbaum

Given the audio pronunciation, with the long e (WAY-nit), it should be perfect tense: came from. Present tense should have a short e (same vowel sound as in the last syllable of videt).


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Martin358481

Nice one. In other words: vĕnit "comes, is coming", vēnit "came, has come". This would not have necessarily meant "from" as you indicate, tho. That sense .comes from. the preposition "a" here, pun intended.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Talos_the_Cat

Per the Calabrese system, the vowel should have the same quality but be only distinguished in length (/ɛ/ and /ɛː/). FYI, if you subscribe to the 1st century BC pronunciation.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/kurt587436

Why is it from and not to? Marcus comes to Germany?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PERCE_NEIGE

Because it's the preposition "a".

Ab/a = from. (but also "far from" in some other contexts)

I think the opposite is "ad", but I'm not sure.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Nick_Pr

Correct, ad + accusative


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Nicholas141873

A, ab = from. Ad = to, toward


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Noitanis

Is there a difference when using "a" instead of "ab"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/SuzanneNussbaum

The difference is usually just for ease in pronunciation: ab before vowels or "h": ab urbe , from the city

ā before consonants: ā vīllā , from the country house

There's a third form, abs : abs tē , from you

I don't think there's anything "wrong" with ab vīllā , but I'm not sure you'd find ā urbe . (Hard to say it: kind of like "a apple" rather than "an apple," versus "a banana.")


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Noitanis

Ah, that makes sense, and is more obvious now when I look at it. Thanks ^^


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Sebassttian

As a native Spanish speaker this is confusing as hell. "A" means "to" in Spanish and in here it means "from"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/SuzanneNussbaum

"to" is ad, in Latin; "from" is ab. It was easier for Romans to distinguish the two, given that an accusative noun follows ad (ad Germaniam), but an ablative noun follows a/ab (a Germania).


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BaybarsDem

Das ist mein land Marcus!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Aube2020

So I'm wondering at what point "a" in the romance languages changed to "to" as opposed to how it is written here..."from"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
Mod
Plus
  • 2602

In Latin, "from" is "ab" or "a" and "to" is "ad".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Martin358481

The Romance languages did not strictly-speaking change the meaning of the preposition; the Romance "a" in the sense of 'to' continues Latin "ad" 'to(wards)', not "a(b)" 'from'.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/SuzanneNussbaum

And there's also the meaning of ad as "at," which I take it we're seeing in "Nous sommes à la plage" and so forth.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/chrisalbert123

What is incorrect about Marcus is from Germany?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/SuzanneNussbaum

Is it the verb? venit (comes) versus est (is) ?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/InkBlotGlows

Both 'a' and 'ab' mean 'from' I'm confused by usage requirements, can someone explain?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
Mod
Plus
  • 2602

It's the same distinction as English a/an.
Marcus a Germania venit.
Marcus ab Italia venit.

http://www.nationalarchives.gov.uk/latin/stage-1-latin/resources/stage-1-latin-grammar-resource/prepositions/


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ArnarStyrB

I heard him say "Marcus ager mane a venit." I was told I was writing in English.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/LeodisMMXXI

Her translation does not sound like "a Germania"

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