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  5. "Do you like this fish sauce?"

"Do you like this fish sauce?"

Translation:Placetne vobis hoc garum?

September 3, 2019



Minime, garum in Thailandiā melior est!


Lit. Pleases (ne) (to) you this fish sauce.


There is no need for the vobis as the you is implied through the verb.


This is not right. Placetne means "is it pleasing?" So who it is pleasing to, i.e. who likes the thing, is not implied in the verb. Placet is an impersonal verb


I understand that only the "vos" as a prononon subject, is optional (not the other pronouns)

But here, if I address someone directly, is it possible to say "Placetne hoc garum?". The person knows I address them.


Actually, yeah, I think that makes sense. I believe that usually you should provide the "tibi" or "vobis" to specify that you are asking one person or many (you singular versus you plural/y'all)


But if there's only one person, I think the person know it's a singular you. Thank you for your useful answer.

Yes, I wanted to say, for people who have a doubt. Here both are valid:

  • Placetne vobis hoc garum? (vos->vobis, plural)

  • Placetne tibi hoc garum? (tu->tibi, sing.)

The verb doesn't change from "placet" (sing) to placent" (plural) if you use a plural you, as the subject of the verb is "garum".

Haec gara placent tibi/vobis: plural.


I put,"placetne vobis garum hoc" and it was marked wrong.


Some adjectives in Latin such as the demonstrative pronouns hic,haec,hoc and ille,illa,illud usually come right before the noun they modify. I don't think it's a set in stone rule though, so you should report your answer as correct anytime you think it also works


Can I say "Hoc garum tibi placet?" as a question?


I don't think it is acceptable, because what you put says, "This fish sauce is pleasing to you?" which is a statement, and although in English it askes for confirmation, it does not do the same thing in Latin. The -ne is required for a yes or no question. In English we usually make it a question by switching the word order, "Is this fish sauce pleasing to you?" but in Latin word order has minimal usage and so an ending is required, thus the suffix -ne.


I think that could be acceptable, but Latin for simple questions uses -ne as an enclitic (particle added to the end of a word) to signify that it is a question and then will put the verb first. That is the usual way to do it


Why is "hoc garum placetne vobis" marked as wrong ?


When phrasing a question in Latin the verb is put at the beginning with a -ne enclitic particle attached to the end of the verb. So it should be the first word in the sentence. Only in questions is the word order very strict. Although Latin follows SOV order most of the time, word order does not contribute to meaning directly, only to emphasis.

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