"Ille est benignus."

Translation: He is kind.

[sommerwild]

What's the difference between “is” and “ille”?

[DieLegende2]

Literally "is" means "this (one)" and "ille" means "that (one)" but both can usually be translated to "he"

[cervido]

According to Wiktionary, "ille" is mainly sed to refer to persons or things which are not near to the speaker.

I imagine a Roman citizen pointing across the street to an kindly, old weaver. The citizen says, "Ille est benignus."

https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/ille#Pronoun_2

According to the Latin Wikiversity course, the word "is" can also refer to far persons or things, but it places less emphasis on the distance than "ille" does.

https://en.m.wikiversity.org/wiki/Latin/Demonstratives_Lesson_1

[PERCE_NEIGE]

Yes, but when they are used to mean "he", there's no distance meaning, so it could have a difference in connotations (but not distance).

Your reply is 100% right when they are used as demonstratives, but I'm still looking for their difference when used to mean "he".

[Lng52-._]

Is the "g" in "benignus" supposed to be silent?

[Danielconcasco]

Many linguists have concluded that the G in GN would not be hard, but a smooth sound. It shouldn't sound like you're fighting a hiccup ;)

[jsclingman]

What is the difference between illos and illi?

[DieLegende2]

illi is the nominative, masculine plural of ille/illa/illud; illos is the accusative, masculine plural.

[igor.piovezan]

Why is it not benignum here? Isn't it supposed to be accusative?

[DieLegende2]

Why would it be? It's an attribute to the subject (which is usually not accusative)

[Abrao733245]

So benignus should be ablative or nominative?

[Danielconcasco]

There is no reason to expect an ablative here.

To be (esse) acts like an equals sign. Ille = benignus. That's why they are the same case.