"The bread is not in the market."
Translation:Panis non est in foro.
Yes, but Latin is not an analytical language, it's the opposite, it's a synthetic language.
A synthetic language, is when you have fewer words, because there are cases, that replaces the use of preposition, like in "domi" for instance. The word ending changes a lot, and it's the word ending that conveys the meaning, not the word oder, so you can say the same thing with fewer words.
An analytic language is the opposite. Word order conveys the meaning, and more words are needed.
It could mean the bread is in the not-market as it is the direct antecedent in the sentence, which doesn't make as much sense to me. I believe the modifier non is to attach to the verb or to the noun depending on your meaning. So your second one is more like "The bread not in the market is" but would be viable/correct.
I've come across the noun 'mercatum' (market) on the National Archives' little online latin course, which says it's a neuter 2nd declension noun. However, other websites are saying it's 'mercatus' and it's masculine and 4th declension.
Does anyone know why this apparent contradiction exists?