1. Forum
  2. >
  3. Topic: Latin
  4. >
  5. "The bread is not in the mark…

"The bread is not in the market."

Translation:Panis non est in foro.

September 4, 2019



Panis in foro non est is the correct classic Latin expression. The verb "to be" goes at the end; in any case, gramatically speaking, the expression is equal to Panis non est in foro, because Latin is an analytical language.


Yes, but Latin is not an analytical language, it's the opposite, it's a synthetic language.

A synthetic language, is when you have fewer words, because there are cases, that replaces the use of preposition, like in "domi" for instance. The word ending changes a lot, and it's the word ending that conveys the meaning, not the word oder, so you can say the same thing with fewer words.

An analytic language is the opposite. Word order conveys the meaning, and more words are needed.


Regardless, the verb is still supposed to go at the end of the sentence.


My latin tutor at university says the verb doesn't need to go at the end of the sentence, but that it's often conventionally written that way, and he does so out of preference.


I've read somewhere that word order does frequently and subtly change the meaning of a latin sentence.


it refers to a location so it takes the ablative form of forum (in + location = ablative, in + direction = accusative, that is how I learned it forty years ago anyway)


In my (Latin) reading I have frequently encountered the negative particle before a prepositional phrase. Is there a reason why the renderings of panis est non in foro or panis non in foro est are not viable?


It could mean the bread is in the not-market as it is the direct antecedent in the sentence, which doesn't make as much sense to me. I believe the modifier non is to attach to the verb or to the noun depending on your meaning. So your second one is more like "The bread not in the market is" but would be viable/correct.


Not sure why it mixes up the word order, after a while I want to put the verb at the end.


«Panis in foro non est» seems more natural.


I've come across the noun 'mercatum' (market) on the National Archives' little online latin course, which says it's a neuter 2nd declension noun. However, other websites are saying it's 'mercatus' and it's masculine and 4th declension.

Does anyone know why this apparent contradiction exists?


I am confused about the difference in usage between "in foro" and "in forum" .

Learn Latin in just 5 minutes a day. For free.