"The men go home."

Translation: Viri domum eunt.

[margrankin]

Romani ite domum!

[DavidBetz]

You beat me to it!

[JefDeSmedt]

No, no, it's "Romanes eunt domus" ;-)

[FrankN.Stein]

People called Romanes they go the house?

[gunungFR]

What am I missing? why is it sometimes domo and other times domum.

[Rae.F]

English has something similar, but to a much lesser degree and only with pronouns. It's the same reason we say "He goes home" and "I saw him".

https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/33822673?comment_id=34260032

• http://dcc.dickinson.edu/sites/default/files/Case_endings_5_decl_1_4.jpg
• http://dcc.dickinson.edu/sites/default/files/Case_endings_5_decl_2_5.jpg

[juancasinisterra]

would someone please explain me like I'm 5 why is it not "it"?

[Rae.F]

The man goes home = Vir domum it.
The men go home = Viri domum eunt.

English	Latin
TO GO	IRE
I go	eo
you go	is
he/she/it goes	it
we go	imus
y'all go	itis
they go	eunt

http://latindictionary.wikidot.com/verb:ire

Here are some conjugation charts for regular verbs:
Latin verb forms

In the most general, the verb endings will look like this:

Pronoun	Verb Suffix
I/ego	-o
you/tu	-s
he/is; she/ea; it/id	-t
we/nos	-mus
y'all/vos	-tis
they/ei; they/eae	-nt

[juancasinisterra]

Thank you so much! you more than earned this lingot :)

[gwr28]

Great explanation. Thank you.

[lezorro]

Why is accusative (domum) and not ablative (domo)? i thought if there was direction we were supposed to use ablative?

[Rae.F]

Because it's motion toward. For more details, please see my "Latin cases, in English" link in my comment above.

[gunungFR]

And another question: when we say 'the men go home' what we really mean is that each of them goes to his own home i.e. there are multiple homes involved because there are multiple men. So #JustChecking is it correct for the Latin to use a singular home in Viri domum eunt just as we do in English?

[Rae.F]

"Viri domum eunt" is the official correct answer, so I would say yes.

[bradleycha330981]

Why is 'ad' wrong? Does 'domum' already imply 'to'?

[Rae.F]

Not exactly, but sort of. It's comparable to how in English we don't need to say "to" when we say "go home", even if we do need to say "go to the store".

Here is a plain-English overview of what the cases are and how they work:
Latin cases, in English

Here are the noun and adjective declension charts:
declensions 1-3
declensions 4&5

Adjectives must agree in gender, number, and case with the nouns they modify, but they have their own declensions. Sometimes you get lucky and the adjective just happens to follow the same declension as the noun, but that is not a guarantee.

For good measure, here are the verb conjugation charts:
1st Conjugation
2nd Conjugation
3rd Conjugation
3rd i-stem Conjugation
4th Conjugation

[vincemat]

Why is "eunt domum viri" incorrect?

[Simon143451]

Anyone else who found this lesson much harder than everything else so far?