I feel like an indirect object with "iacere" is weird; a cursory PHI search suggests "in" with the accusative (though I admit my bad instincts, as I lean towards "ad"). Is there much evidence for the dative with "iacere" in this sense?
I can’t quite work out how you can throw one cup to many people?
Vobis is also a polite 2nd person pronoun
I don't think that's the case in classical Latin
Ah, I thought it was only plural, unlike French.
Can you give a reference for that, @mikezephyr?
I suppose you could throw something to many people and only one of them catches it!
Why "we throw the cup AT you" is wrong?