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  5. "I would like wine and bread."

"I would like wine and bread."

Translation:Vinum et panem velim.

September 6, 2019



So why does velim end in an -im if it's first person? That's always been -o so far


It's not a simple indicative verb. I would guess that it's similar to why gustaría and quiero are different in Spanish.


Gustar and querer are completely different verbs in Spanish.


Welcome to the Subjunctive, the form of verbs that deal with hypothetical situations, reported events and anything that is not Indicative (i.e. actually happening). English often uses "would" or "may" to indicate the subjunctive, but we still have it in the form of things like "They suggest that he ask for it" (instead of 'asks'), or "We heard that he were detained" (instead of 'was'), or "Many believe that he be missing" (instead of 'is').

In Latin this has many additional uses, such as "let us...", e.g. vivere = to live, vivimus = 'we live,' but vivamus (note the vowel change) = 'may we live' or 'let us live!' In the above example, it softens volo (I want/wish) to velim (I would like).

Remember that the -m ending, like 'sum' (subjunctive 'sim') is cognate with English 'am', from Indo-European hésmi (Proto-Italic ezom > sum).


Why is it panem not panis


Pánem and vínum are in the accusative case because they are the objects that the verb, velim, is directed at.


I get that these nouns are used in the Accusative case (because, etc) so thank you.

When these words are introduced as New Vocabulary in the Tips, I'm confused why they are presented like this:

vinum//wine//2nd, neut.//vin-

panis//bread//3rd, masc.//pan-

Why vinum (Acc) and Panis (??? Case)?


Both "vinum" and "panis" are the nominative forms. "Vinum" is both the nominative and accusative form; a number of second-declension nouns have "-um" in both forms.


Awesome! Thanks. All new vocab nouns are introduced in their Nom forms.

New question -- Adjectives are introduced like this:

ruber//red//ruber, rubra, rubrum//rubr-

and this gives their Masc/Fem/Neut forms?


Yes, that's right. And, for completeness, "rubr-" is the stem that you apply endings to in general: "rubri," "rubrae," "rubro," etc.


You're on a roll. How about this:

multi//many//-i, -ae, -a (plural)

What's with the different endings?


To add to Moopish's answer, "multi" has different endings from what you usually see because, as the entry mentions, it's plural.

I'm not quite sure why Duo chose to list just the plural forms, because it can also be used in the singular to mean "much / a lot of": "multum vinum" = "a lot of wine." And so the forms you mentioned, "multi/multae/multa," are the plural forms of "multus/multa/multum" respectively, which match the usual pattern.


Multi is an adjective, it has masculine multi, feminine multae, and neuter multa forms.


"The accusative case is the case for the direct object of transitive verbs"


Vínum et pánem velim.


I don't think velim is correct. It shouldn't be subjunctive in Latin because it has that potential idea built into it. We only do the "would like" in English because it sounds polite. Can you point to a Roman source that uses velim?


Plautus, Amphitruo, Act V, Scene I, Bromia says: vae misera mihi, animo malest, aquam velim, corrupta sum et absumpta sum.


The multiple choice had Velim at the begining in one and the end in the other. Which word order is correct?


It is more common to put the verb at the end of the sentence. However, it can be almost anywhere. The incorrect choice would have an incorrect word or case. It would not have the wrong word order.

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