"If she had loved me" is past perfect (further back in time than past imperfect) = si elle m'avait aimé, with the auxiliary in past imperfect.
"If she has loved me" = si elle m'a aimé is compound past, with the auxiliary in present tense,as in the present perfect "if she has loved me".
If she loved me, I would be happy = si elle m’aimait, je serais heureux : past simple + conditional present in English; imperfect + conditional present in French.
If she had loved me, I would have been happy = si elle m’avait aimé, j’aurais été heureux: past perfect + cond. past in English; plus-que-parfait + cond. past in French.
It's true that "if she loved me" doesn't refer to a past time in that scenario, but I believe the verb form is still referred to as the past tense, employed in a counterfactual condition clause. Wikipedia currently has the following sentence:
A language's past tense may also have other uses besides referring to past time; for example, in English and certain other languages, the past tense is sometimes used in referring to hypothetical situations, such as in condition clauses like If you loved me ..., where the past tense loved is used even though there may be no connection with past time.
This conception of it is also supported here:
And it's also how "conditional sentences type 2" are described in the grammar book I have at hand, Thomson and Martinet's A Practical English Grammar :
The verb in the if-clause is in the past tense; the verb in the main clause is in the conditional tense.
The same would apply to the pluperfect.
"aimée" is not feminine because of "elle" but because of the speaker:
In that sentence, you have 2 individuals: "elle" and "m' "
"elle" is the subject of "a aimée"
"m' " is the speaker, and the direct object of "a aimée".
The speaker has to be a woman, because "aimée" is feminine.
- "aimée" agrees with the object because "m' " is placed in front of the verb.
Look at variants with other individuals:
il m'a aimée (il is a man and speaker m' is a woman)
elle m'a aimé (elle is a woman and speaker m' is a man)
Every sentence can be pronounced by a male or female voice. They do not endorse what is being said, just reading the sentences aloud (sort of, since their original word by word recording has been processed through TTS).
However, since "aimé" and "aimée" are homophones, I disabled the "type what you hear" exercise, to avoid further confusion.
I cannot think of a time when anyone would say in English, 'If she has loved me". I can see someone saying, if she loved me I would xyz (si elle m'aimait...), or if she had loved me (si elle m'avait aimé), but I am drawing a blank on si elle m' a aimée. Can you explain the context in which this situation would occur? I still think in English you would translate any past conditional event (conditional or not) that doesn't exist now as "If she had loved me"
I guess you could say "If she has loved me all along, I have been wrong!', but this would indicate that she is still loving me, and therefore, wouldn't be passé compose in French?
What's important is that you get the French right. As long as the English is not clearly incorrect, variants are there to cover a variety of context interpretations that are left to our imagination.
"If she has loved me all along, I have been wrong" = "Si elle m'a aimé(e) tout ce temps, j'ai eu tort".
Our passé composé can convey alternatively an action completed in the past or an action repeated in the past or repeated actions in the past. So it is indeed a past tense which overlaps with present perfect only for repeated actions in the past, like:
- I have worked in so many cities = j'ai travaillé dans de si nombreuses villes.
I assume that the rule goes for states and feelings as well.
Noted, though it doesn't always in English, even with its present aspect. I'm probably not always alive to this idea when thinking about the English tense, but now that you mention it, the accompanying time indicator is important — in this case "all along". In other examples, "she has loved me for seven years" would be interpreted to mean that the state of her affection has remained constant until the present, whereas "she has loved me for seven of the last ten years" doesn't say that she still does at this moment, though the viewpoint is still a present one. "She has loved me" on its own just refers to some time prior to the present, and probably not immediately adjacent to the present, though in context it could be.
If the ''so'' is an interjection, it's ''donc'' (so, therefore, thus, etc)
Donc elle m'aimée... (So she loved me..)
Si can be translated as ''so'' only if it's modifying a verb or an adjective, as an Adverb.
Je suis si heureuse qu'elle m'aimée (I am so happy that she loved me)
Hope it helps! :3
Sitesurf has an example on this page of when the compound tense makes sense. I think the following would be a plausible example of the imparfait:
- J'ai décidé de lui demander si elle m'aimait. Si elle m'aimait, je lui demanderais de m'épouser. — I decided to ask her if she loved me. If she loved me, I would ask her to marry me.
If she loved me, NOT 'If she has loved me.' That is not English. It is grammatically correct, but is makes absolutely no sense.
'If she has loved me all along, I have been wrong' helps me clarify why If she has loved me is nothing more than a fragment, a dependant clause. It is not a natural sentence on its own in English.
Ah! Thank you, now I understand why to my ears this phrase on its own sounds off.
Mr Sitesurf can you help me change my account back to English?
It is stuck in Czech and I have asked so long for help ..I do not know where to turn.
But you are so understanding and interactive with your students. Please tell me where to turn, for "help" has not answered me :(
So sorry to bother you :((
I'm not Mr. Sitesurf, or Ms. Sitesurf, for that matter, but since I'm here...
Using a desktop computer browser:
- click on the flag beside your name and profile picture at the top of the page;
- on the menu that appears, click "Add a new course" (or its equivalent in Czech);
- in the upper right corner of the course selection page, use the drop-down menu to choose English as your base language;
- from the languages available for study, as shown on the rest of the page, select the language you're currently studying from English; and
- click on "Start course" (or its equivalent in Czech).
I imagine there's a similar method for the mobile apps.
Ohhhhh! I have been trying to change it from account settings! I felt as though I was in another world 00!!! You have made my life bearable again! :D Ask me for as many lingots as you desire - I will pay all I can! (One day they will figure a use for these little gems ;) You are now my favorite elephant!!! :D
No, the English translation of "aimée" wouldn't really have anything to do with the gender of the people involved. In general, when referring to people or pets, translate "aimer" as "love".
There are different ways in which female persons, or persons of any gender, can love each other. There are lovers, fast friends, family members of all kinds, etc.
I have had three French people tell me that aimer can mean to like or to love. Granted my French teacher is not really French. But my French pen-pal was from Northeastern France while my French tutor was from Southwestern France. So how come Duolingo will not accept "if she liked me"? They also noted that "adorer" is used to denote love.
On its own (not modified by "bien"), in the affirmative, with people (or pets), "aimer" is "to love".
In other contexts (e.g. referring to things) it's "to like". Here's a usage guide: