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  5. "Livia feels well."

"Livia feels well."

Translation:Livia se bene habet.

September 7, 2019

43 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Dan142146

Should "Livia bene habet" be accepted since the noun is in the verb "habet" (he/she/it feels..)? As "se" is a reflexive pronoun, "Livia se bene habet" translates as "Livia, that person we were talking about, she feels well".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

No, the reflexive is necessary because it's literally "Livia has herself well."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Dan142146

--Edit-- Never mind. The only question I still have is whether "Livia runs well" would translate the same way: "Livia se bene currit"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

I don't think so, because I'm pretty sure "run" is not a reflexive verb in any language.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/J.C.M.H.

In Spanish we have correrse:

  • Se corrió la tinta → "The ink smudged".

https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

That's a particular usage of "correr" though. I'm pretty sure the primary sense is not reflexive.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Jetsetterd

As an English speaker, who is learning Portuguese, and taking up Latin in the hope that it will help with all of those languages and for the fun of it, I have been trying to figure out how to do the different endings. I have learned that when it is I as in I am I feel etc it ends in o - habeo, you plural is therefore S, habes, is T as in habet when talking about a person, like you would he/she/it? Have I got this pattern right? not strictly about this question, I know but I am trying to figure out how words change and why. Is it also a T for we as well?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

The general, broad pattern for regular verbs in the present active indicative is

pronoun verb suffix
ego -o
tu -s
id -t
nos -mus
vos -tis
ea -nt

I see a stupid mnemonic:
original soundtrack
must, isn't


http://dcc.dickinson.edu/sites/default/files/pres_imp_act_pass_endings_0.jpg


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/mysterymuse

this is super helpful thank you so much


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/JayBrodell

I wonder if Livia bene se habet also would not be correct.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

It's fine. If that is not accepted, please flag it and report "My answer should be accepted."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/leo967241

I did this question earlier with th se in the right place, but it said i had a typo. This time i put the se last and it was wrong.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

As with the Romance languages that evolved from Latin, the object pronoun can never come after the verb. "Se" is the reflexive here, literally "Livia holds herself well". You can say "Livia bene se habet" or "Livia se bene habet" but the object pronoun "se" can not come after the verb "habet".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ChrisV0817

I'm still confused on when to use "habes" and "habet". I knew the proper structure and it accepted it, bur just for me ro improve please and thank you


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

Please refer to the chart on this page.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/mona208606

Habes - you have; habet - he/she/it has


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/LightVende

Could someone explain to me the distinct differences between "habeo", "habes" and "habet"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

There's a conjugation chart on this page.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/mona208606

habeo - I have; habes - you have; habet - he/she/it has


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Catharine499251

Question about syntax: is "Livia se habet bene" possible?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

Not really. Adverbs need to come before the verb. But the adverb and the reflexive pronoun are flexible:
Livia se bene habet.
Livia bene se habet.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Chooch639215

So I wrote Livia te bene habes. It was marked correct (yay), but it also said you have a typo and gave Livia se bene habet as the correction. Ummm.... so is Livia te bene habes = livia you feel well? And the other is 3rd person, Livia feels well? Seems like this particular sentence should choose one and not include the other as possibilities because at this early stage, it's just too confusing.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

That has nothing to do with noun declension and Latin does not have familiar vs formal. Even if it did, you're talking about Livia, not to her.

This was nothing more than the correction algorithm being too forgiving.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Chooch639215

Ok, thanks for the clarification. I'll take the little victory of being wrong and remember next time


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Nanut120

To make it clear, se and te is same word, just used in different form. It is not used just with habet, but is used mostly when talking about actions of noun to itself.

"Livia se bene habet?" is translated to "Livia is well", while "Livia, te bene habet?" means "Livia, are you well?"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

No, "se" and "te" is not the same word any more than "herself" and "yourself" is the same word.

Livia se bene habet -- Literally, "Livia holds herself well"

Livia, te bene habes? -- Literally, "Livia, do you hold yourself well?"


Here are the verb conjugation charts:
1st Conjugation
2nd Conjugation
3rd Conjugation
3rd i-stem Conjugation
4th Conjugation

Here is a plain-English overview of what the cases are and how they work:
Latin cases, in English

Here are the noun and adjective declension charts:
declensions 1-3
declensions 4&5

Adjectives must agree in gender, number, and case with the nouns they modify, but they have their own declensions. Sometimes you get lucky and the adjective just happens to follow the same declension as the noun, but that is not a guarantee.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

leila956925

I just tested them and they work fine for me. All I can do is try posting them un-formatted:

Here is a plain-English overview of what the cases are and how they work:
Latin cases, in English: https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/33822673?comment_id=34261475

Here are the noun and adjective declension charts:
declensions 1-3: http://dcc.dickinson.edu/sites/default/files/Case_endings_5_decl_1_4.jpg
declensions 4&5: http://dcc.dickinson.edu/sites/default/files/Case_endings_5_decl_2_5.jpg

Adjectives must agree in gender, number, and case with the nouns they modify, but they have their own declensions. Sometimes you get lucky and the adjective just happens to follow the same declension as the noun, but that is not a guarantee.

For good measure, here are the verb conjugation charts:
1st Conjugation: https://bencrowder.net/images/design/LatinConjugations-1st.png
2nd Conjugation: https://bencrowder.net/images/design/LatinConjugations-2nd.png
3rd Conjugation: https://bencrowder.net/images/design/LatinConjugations-3rd.png
3rd i-stem Conjugation: https://bencrowder.net/images/design/LatinConjugations-3rd-i-stem.png
4th Conjugation: https://bencrowder.net/images/design/LatinConjugations-4th.png


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Badabida

I used "livia se habes bene"and it was accepted. I'm confused


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/machucaw

Ok, good. Thanks ;)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AnthonyTam110694

What about "Livia bene sentit"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

No, that verb does not have the same meaning indicated here.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Dhruv_jadhav

would you like to explain to me how exactly the meaning would be "indicated"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/EgosumSyam

Can anyone tell me the difference between habe habet and habeo


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

They are different conjugations of habere, "to have/hold/keep".

http://latindictionary.wikidot.com/verb:habere


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/nkp2ro

Difference between habes and habet?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

Please read the other comments on this page.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/JanneJoh

The bene can't stand at the end? How is the sentence structure.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

Latin sentence structure is subject - object - verb. The adjective can come before or after the noun, but the adverb needs to come right before the verb.

http://rharriso.sites.truman.edu/latin-language/latin-word-order/


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/wendybiscuit

Livia se habeo male should be accepted, but duolinguo wants Livia se male habeo. I feel asthough every other coment i leave is regarding duolinguos insenant need to have specific word order when not required.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rae.F
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  • 2613

The comments you leave here only go to your fellow students. As for Latin syntax, it's not as "anything goes" as you seem to think. As explained in other comments on this page, adverbs, unlike adjectives which can come before or after the noun, need to come before the verb.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/MayaGomes7

When do you use habet and when do you use habes? Sorry if this question is already here.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/machucaw

Let me ask (and I don't see this addressed in the thread): Why is "se habet" separated by "bene"? Considering word order, I put "Livia se habet bene" as "Livia she feels well" as I might in Spanish. But this was flagged in error. Your feedback is appreciated ;)

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