"Livia feels well."
Translation:Livia se bene habet.
Should "Livia bene habet" be accepted since the noun is in the verb "habet" (he/she/it feels..)? As "se" is a reflexive pronoun, "Livia se bene habet" translates as "Livia, that person we were talking about, she feels well".
No, the reflexive is necessary because it's literally "Livia has herself well."
--Edit-- Never mind. The only question I still have is whether "Livia runs well" would translate the same way: "Livia se bene currit"?
I don't think so, because I'm pretty sure "run" is not a reflexive verb in any language.