1. Forum
  2. >
  3. Topic: Latin
  4. >
  5. "Umbra de caelo descendit."

"Umbra de caelo descendit."

Translation:The shadow descends from the sky.

September 11, 2019



Sanctus vĭrĭdis Bubo Duo de caelo descendēbat, umbrā vestitus erat, omnes psittacos ebrios et homines pleros Romae dēlēbat.


Why am I forced to add a "the" to shadow to be deemed correct here?


This is the sort of thing that leads to our having a love-hate relationship with Duolingo.


My question as well.


Same problem here. I also reported it. A year later still isn't fixed.


How every epic war in a fantasy novel beings


I wrote "comes down " instead of descends. It was marked wrong. Wrong!


I'm not sure but I think ghosts in ancient Rome were also referred to as shadows, so that may be what this is referring to. But I might be wrong.


Ridiculous! In English "come down" means exactly what "descend" would mean. As a matter of fact the Teutonic root is considered more authentic than the Latin derivative. Then why would such an answer be rejected?

"Umbra de caelo descendit" could correctly be rendered in English as "Shadow comes down from the sky".. (since Latin does not use definite or indefinite article...


Such a heavy accent. Sounds like a Texan speakin' Spanglish


Why is "from the heaven" incorrect? caelum does have the translation for "heaven".


Why is "from the heaven" incorrect?

It sounds like wrong English to me.

"heaven" is usually used without an article, in my experience, as if it's a proper noun -- similarly with "hell". So "from heaven" might work.


Or: 'from the heavens' works in English, but since this moves to a plural in the English idiom from a singular in the Latin sentence, it is unlikely to be an accepted answer.


Yeah... I think "the heavens" is a more literal rendering of the Hebrew השמים (hashamayim) from Old Testament bible texts... For some reason in Hebrew it is always in plural and with definite article.


Shouldn't ghost also be accepted for umbra?


Why is "caelo" pronounced like "ka-e-lo" while in another sources it's "chæ-lo"?


This course uses classical pronunciation, rather than mediaeval.


I am curious about the meaning of this. If the sun is shining, I think of a shadow as being cast by the sunlight and lying on the ground, not as descending from the sky. I see that some of the other comments mention the idea of the shadow being a ghost, but I do not know enough to speak to that. The only way this makes physical sense to me is if something, say a cloud, gradually obscures the sun. Then the shadow would grow more widespread, as everything on the ground would come into the shadow of the cloud. That is at least the image I get from this statement. Did the Romans think of it in some different way? Is a sentence like this one that they would have said?


This sounded really poemy, like it was written in some kind of reverse iambic trimetre.


it's annoying that here the word ends with an A and yet is singular


It's a feminine noun that follows the first declension. You should have gotten used to it by now. :/

Learn Latin in just 5 minutes a day. For free.