"The lunch pleases her."
Translation:Prandium ei placet.
Coincidence: ei in Wlesh means his/hers. The gender of the owner is distinguished by a) placing e (male) or hi (female) after the noun; and b) mutating (treiglad) the beginning of the word differently: his takes treiglad meddwl and hers takes treiglad llais.
Since Welsh is an older language than Latin, I wonder if this means the pronoun goes back to PIE?
First, it would be "sibi" (dative), not "se" (accusative); second, "se", "sibi" etc. is used when the subject is acting on itself, so "prandium sibi placet" would mean "the lunch pleases itself". It's just like in Italian, you say "gli/le piace", not "si piace"; or in Spanish, you say "le gusta", not "se gusta"
Duolingo corrected me previously when I used "ei placet" for "is pleasing to him" and gave "Eius placet" as a correction . So I gave "Prandium eius placet" "The lunch pleases her". I don't understand . Was I right the previous time and the correction incorrect , so I should have ignored that correction . Or is there a difference between "to him" versus "to her", or something else ?