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  5. "The two men sleep at home."

"The two men sleep at home."

Translation:Duo viri domi dormiunt.

September 17, 2019



Why is viri duo domi dormiunt not acceptable?


Strictly speaking it probably should. While work order is highly flexible, numbers typically come before the noun (as do a few other quantity based adjectives etc.)


I actually determined this to be very very false. Caesar puts his numbers after nouns about half the time. Everyone just wants to copy Cicero though, who rarely did this.


Other differences between authors have been observed. For example, Caesar frequently places a number after a noun (in about 46% of cases), but this is rarer in Cicero (only 10% of cases).

(Wikipedia, word order article)


....Hence "typically." This convention is advocated in a variety of resources (e.g. Wheelock.) It's also convenient for when you learn Ablative with Cardinal Numbers.


Gallia est omnis divisa in partes tres...

-C. Iulius Caesar, Commentarii de Bello Gallico


Consider allowing "Duo domi dormiunt." Often the nouns themselves were dropped from writing when the adjective indicates gender.


Yes, but in this case, we don't know two of what. Two dogs? Two children?

I appreciated to learn that "Duo domi dormiunt" is good Latin grammar,
I keep it somewhere in my brain,
but your sentence is like "Two of them are sleeping".


That's true, but if we're looking to get used to classical era Latin, we'd need to get used to it, as it's EXTREMELY common to skip the noun and stay with only the substantive noun.


That's really interesting to know, very good grammar tip.
But I think that it needs a context to make that kind of sentence, as when you talk about 2 men, and in the next sentence, or one of the next, you say "2 are doing that..."

I don't think it would be a good practice in a course to skip the nouns, and to avoid to translate them.

Or, is it like when I take an adjective to imply a person.

For instance Aegri. Meaning the sick (the sick men)
And thus, the skipping of the noun always implies it's a person?


r/AchillesAndHisFriend /j


Is domi in a vestigial locative case hence the lack of preposition in?


Yes. If it used the ablative with "in", it would be "in domo" (or "in domu").


Duo is the masculine (and I believe neuter) version of 'two', whereas duae is feminine. So if you were saying the two women sleep at home, it would be duae.

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