1. Forum
  2. >
  3. Topic: Latin
  4. >
  5. "Marcus studies Latin."

"Marcus studies Latin."

Translation:Marcus linguae Latinae studet.

September 24, 2019



Why is linguae Latinae used here instead of the linguam Latinam because Marcus is male (presumably)?


Nothing to do with Marcus.

It is because studeō, studēre (here studet) takes the dative (linquae Latīnae) as the 'direct object', instead of the accusative (linquam Latīnam) like most other verbs do.


Great, thanks! I hope the developers can put that information into the grammar section for the level.


Please ingrid, give me the link to the grammar section


Thank you. That's very helpful. :-)


But why is it the direct object in this sentence? If you solve the question "For whom does he study?" then that is not given in this context. "Who or what does he study?" > He studies the latin language. Thus Latin language should take the accusative.


studere is a verb that normally takes the dative. There are a few verbs like this, if I am not mistaken it is because they are actually intransitive, but they will sometimes have translation to transitive verbs. studere can also be translated as 'to be eager for', 'to strive after' ('to study' being a later usage from my understanding).

I simply used 'direct object' to simplify the concept, and also why I but it between apostrophes.

Information on studere: http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus:text:1999.04.0059:entry=studeo

Information on verbs that take the dative: http://dcc.dickinson.edu/grammar/latin/dative-special-verbs


Calling it "direct object" is confusing & unclear because the very definition of accusative is "direct object" and the very definition of dative is "indirect object".

I found it much more clear when you said studere is intransitive, thus needing an indirect object.

Here is an analogy. "Marcus studies for accomplishments in the latin language" is something an old-fashioned English speaker might say (picture a Jane Austen novel), and may be in the spirit of what studere means.

The direct object (the accusative part) is "for accomplishments"... but it is so obvious that English speakers stopped including it. That leaves us with the indirect object (the dative part), "Marcus studies in the Latin language".

Americans then went further, going to "Marcus studies the Latin language" and finally just "Marcus studies Latin", transforming it to the accusative (direct object). But that's an American problem ;)

To come back to the main example: the area of study really is an indirect object; meanwhile a direct object is unnecessary and is omitted. Something like that, I think, happens in the Latin - hence the dative.


Sometimes, if you don't say "Latin language" or "linguae latinae" in the translation, it's marked incorrect and needs to be "Latin" or "latinae". Other times, it's correct. What's the reasoning? (I intend to post this under multiple questions)


when did the dative come into this level?. Have i missed something?


When they introduced studet, since it takes the dative instead of the accusative. (Maybe the notes mention this?)


Why isn't just "Marcus Latinae studet" accepted?


I hear some incomprehensible alien screeching sounds when clicking on linguae...to all sentient species that may be reading this, that is not quite how you pronounce linguae!

Learn Latin in just 5 minutes a day. For free.