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  5. "Lo habremos encontrado a él …

"Lo habremos encontrado a él en dos horas."

Translation:We will have found him in two hours.

April 21, 2013



I can't wrap my head around this. Shouldn't it be conditional? Can someone less confused than I come up with a question where this would be an appropriate response?


If you're not here with the documents in 2 hours, forget it. We will have found him in 2 hours.


We've been looking for Waldo for an hour. If it takes another hour to find him, we will have found him in two hours.


I do not understand why it cannot be found It rather than him?


Lo habremos encontrado "a él" en dos horas.

I could be wrong but I think the "a el" part clarifies that the sentence means "him"

Although El can be used to signify an object it is used much more often for men.

Have a free lingot.


Me neither, does anyone know why it can't be "we will have found it in two hours" ?


Lo habremos encontrado a él en dos horas.

Lo is a direct object pronoun which can mean any of "it/him/her/you (formal)", without further context it's impossible to know which. So in Spanish (where the context is not clear) it's common practise to add " a él" or "a ella" ect. to clarify the subject.

So this effectively breaks down to

"Lo habremos encontrado" = "we will have found it/ him/her/ you (formal)"

"a él" = clarification of "lo" to show we are talking about him (ie Pete rather than John, or even Pete rather than the car)

"en dos horas" = in two hours

And just to really mess things up I think you can put those three sections into any order. ie.

en dos horas a él Lo habremos encontrado etc.


You're almost right here. But "lo" would not be used for "her".
Lo = him, you (Ud. masc.), or it (masc.)
La = her, you (Ud. fem.), or it (fem.)


I don't understand this structure... why does it have 'lo' at the beginning? ( when it has 'el' as the object??)


An example where the response could be "We will have found him in two hours" could be the question "How long will it take you to find him"?


Is the "a" a personal a in the sentence?


Could it not be "have found it in two hours" ? Or would this have a different translation ? Please explain. Thanks.


"We will have found it in two hours" is perfectly good English, it is not nonsensical as mentioned in the discussion. There must be another reason why you couldn't use it instead of him.


The correct English is "we will have found him in two hours time". I did not try it though, because DL usually rejects that sort of thing.


What purpose does "lo" serve at the beginning of this sentence?


It is the required direct object pronoun for him. Lo habremos encontrado = We will have found him. Since lo is also the direct object pronoun for it (masc.) and for you (formal masc.), the optional a + pronoun phrase (a él) is added for clarity. The lo is required; the a + pronoun phrase is optional.


We isn't it

Le habremos encontrado a él en dos horas.



Could a better translation be;- WE WILL HAVE FOUND IT FOR HIM IN TWO HOURS?


Would be para (to serve him), or por (in his stead), not a.


Why is it not "it" in place of him?

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