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  5. "We have sons."

"We have sons."

Translation:Filios habemus.

September 30, 2019



WHY, in most of the tap-the-word pages, do they make it easier by capitalizing the word they want as the first one?


It's like that in every language course. I agree 100% with you


Is it the same to say "filios habemus" and "habemus filios"? I put habemus filios and it said it is correct, like filios habemus


It's said that the "standard" or unmarked way of saying it is to put the direct object before the verb (fīliōs habēmus), but there's nothing wrong with putting the object after the verb (habēmus fīliōs).


What is the different between pueros and filos?


pueros are boys and filios are sons


Why filios and not filii? TIA


"We have sons." What role or function is the word "sons" playing in this sentence? Are they the subject ( = doing the action, in this sentence, "having"), or are they the object ( = being affected by the action, i.e., "being had" ) ?

"We have THEM." In this sentence, "sons" are the object, because SONS are what we have: Fīliōs habēmus . fīliōs is the accusative plural form of this 2nd declension noun, fīlius, fīliī , m., son.

To use the form fīliī , the nominative plural form, we'd need a sentence in which the sons were doing something: Fīliī patrem amant , "The sons (THEY) love their father."

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