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  5. "Vinum et panem velim."

"Vinum et panem velim."

Translation:I would like wine and bread.

October 5, 2019


pron.\tense Present Indicative Present Subjunctive
ego volo velim
tu vis velis
is, ea, id vult velit
nos volumus velimus
vos vultis velitis
ei, eae, ea volunt velint

Indicative - "I want" Subjunctive - "I would want/I would like"

The subjunctive mood is for uncertainty, often expressing as a wish, desire, doubt or hope as in: "I wish I were sleepy."

Subjunctive Mood The subjunctive mood is tricky and worth some discussion. Part of this is because in English we are rarely aware that we're using the subjunctive, but when we do, it expresses uncertainty, often a wish, desire, doubt, or hope.

Modern Romance languages such as Spanish, French, and Italian have retained verb form changes to express the subjunctive mood; those changes are less frequently seen in modern English.

A common example of the Latin subjunctive is found on old tombstones: Requiescat in pace. > May (s)he rest in peace.

The Latin subjunctive exists in four tenses: the present, imperfect, perfect and pluperfect. It is used in the active and passive voice, and it can change according to the conjugation. Two common irregular verbs in the subjunctive are esse ("to be") and posse ("to be able").

Additional Uses of the Latin Subjunctive In English, chances are that when the auxiliary verbs "may" ("He may be sleeping"), "can, must, might, could" and "would" appear in a sentence, the verb is in the subjunctive. Latin uses ​the subjunctive in other instances as well. These are some notable instances:



Subjunctive is a mood, not a tense. It's not a good idea to extrapolate from the use of the subjunctive in Romance languages back into Latin, esp. if the focus is on classical Latin. For example, it's fine to ask for something in Spanish using the imperfect subjunctive, quisiera vino y pan, por favor, but you can also use the indicative, quiero vino y pan, por favor. One does not have to use the subjunctive to express politeness in Spanish. Romans could use volo for this sentence, not velim. Even in Romance languages, the subjunctive mood is almost always in subordinate clauses with a trigger word or conjunction. It's unfortunate that DL Latin has chosen to use a hodgepodge of 'Romance Latin'? rather than locate examples from the enormous body of Latin in the TLL. There's a reason Wheelock employed sententiae antiquae in his grammar. It is possible that Romans employed the subjunctive in this manner, although there is little evidence for it. Having said all that, I appreciate that people took the time to put something together. This course if fun and a decent start. They can make adjustments in future iterations.


Ah I see the famous 'Deus vult'


Okay, why doesn't this translate to want? What is the difference between "would like" and "want"?


Not an expert, but here is my answer for your question:

Vilem = "would like" is a more calm, polite, and social form of wanting. "I would kindly like a glass of water"

Cupio = "want" is a more passionate desire. "I'm so thirsty after that journey, I want a glass of water or I might pass out." It is a more covetus, intense want.

Perhaps the Romans used their word for "want" only when it was a very important want, and they used their word for "would like" to indicate a simple or trivial want.


Is 'velim' a different conjugation here? I would expect velio or something but the verb is clearly a different pattern.


velim is a subjunctive form (present first person), opposed to volo which would be an indicative form (present first person )


thanks. I forgot to look at the lesson hints before starting the new section.


In that order. Thank you. (The bread is for the sparrows)


Why are all the V sounds said like W sounds? It's totally incorrect.


Romans such as Pompey and Cicero (classical Latin) pronounced it that way. The creators of DL Latin were up front from the beginning that they are employing a type of classical Latin pronunciation. They also asked that people not take up space in the discussion board with comments about their favorite way of pronouncing Latin.


Seems to be true. And there is Latina restituta, Latina ecclesiastica, an Italian style Latin. I guess you hardly make anyone content. So people who have already gained some experience can make it their way and let people life the other way. And besides noone has the best proof which can be seen when people try to discuss how to pronounce Ancient Greek today.


Why is translation: "I would like a wine and a bread" wrong?

  • 2716

Because English speakers don't say it that way.


Well, not "a bread", certainly. But when asked, "What'll you have, Scían?" I might answer, "I'll have a wine, thanks." (Though I'm far more likely to ask for a beer...)


You don't have to say 'a' before bread. The correct answer is "I would like wine and bread." Not "I would like like wine and A bread."


uncountable nouns do not use articles this way. So you say "much bread and much wine" and not many. I would like money and not *I would like a money. Uncountable: money, water, time etc. pp. Maybe you want a loaf of bread and a glass of wine ;) . Loaves and glasses are countable because they can be numbered. So, Latin does not use articles this way (if we don't mention demonstrative pronouns), so it is a English-only issue.


...said Jesus to his disciples.


Here you go enjoy your jesus

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