Why isn't 'Ego quid habeo?' a correct translation? Is 'ego' not allowed to be in the first place in the sentence or..?
In Latin, the question term must come first. That is why the correct form is "Quid habeo?" Translation: What do i have. If it were Ego quid habeo then the translation will be " I what have?" And that doesnt make sense. Hope this helps.
Which is more idiomatic, "Quid ego habeo?" or "Quid habeo ego?"
Usually the verb is at the sentence's end in Latin. Therefore "Quid ego habeo?", but since the verb form already indicates first person singular we can drop the "ego".
Why not "quid me habeo"?
Remember that "I" (ego) is firmly implied by the ending on (habeo). If you then put in a reflexive (me), it becomes something like "what do I myself have?"
Ok can somebody tell me why 'do' on latin (faciunt) be applied here, in this example....