"La pasta nel piatto è la sua."
Translation:The pasta on the plate is his.
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I would think context? If more specific language was needed, I'm sure a person would just go for that instead. So, if there were a group of people, and it could belong to any of them, someone might use a name "the pasta on the plate is John's," or say "the pasta on the plate belongs to that woman in the blue dress." But in a case where it's not specified, I would just assume the greater conversation would make it clear what you intend.
I've read all these and I'm still confused. The correct answer is "The pasta on the plate is his," right? This sentence can't mean "The pasta on the plate is hers"? If not, WHY not? And if "sua" can't mean "yours" why does "yours" show up as a translation when I touch the word "sua"? I can see this has been talked to death so please forgive me for bringing it up again, I'm just so confused!
So when it says "è la sua", there is the article "la" because it is referring to the pasta not to the person? So rather than saying (in english) "The pasta on the plate is her pasta", they shorten it by saying "è la sua" and removing pasta?
Trying to understand why it's "è la sua" now when sometimes it is just "è sua"
Part of the problem is that the possessive adjectives in Italian and the possessive pronouns are both his/hers, So it’s hard to see the difference in usage. An easier way to understand it is using my and mine Because in English they are different words. So the possessive adjective will be in front of the noun for example la mia pasta = my pasta. At the end following è it is la mia = is mine. This is a more economical way to say the pasta is my pasta. Now just go back and substitute his in the sentence. As has been noted in other comments, at the end of the sentence after a version of the verb essere The use of the definite article is optional so it could be è la sua or è sua.