I am guessing that "quedar" is being used reflexively, (aka quedarse) where you have to say "me quede" to signify that you are doing the "staying" to yourself. It doesn't really make sense that way, so these might help:
if the subject is I, then the reflexive pronoun is 'me', same as the subject pronoun, if it is 'you/he/she', then it is se..
If "se," then "they." These lessons may help you sort them out. http://www.123teachme.com/learn_spanish/reflexive_pronouns
The subject is "yo", so the object is "me", not "se". "Se" is for the 3rd singular/plural pronouns.
Yes, it is wrong. When the subject of the sentence is a sentient being, either a person or an animal, the appropriate verb is the reflexive one quedarse. Commonly this also effects the English translation. Quedarse is most commonly translated as to stay and quedar us most commonly translated as either to remain or to be left. But English is somewhat more flexible here, so we do sometimes say things like I remained at the house.or the rock stayed dry. But in Spanish, it is considered a vokuntary action for people and animals (creatures who possess volition) but involuntary by things.
Yes, it is wrong because the meaning is different. Quedar = to remain (how many things are left there?)
Quedar can mean MANY different things (about 20)! Often, it means remaining or left. Quedarse has a more specific meaning. So, me quedé = stayed. Without "me," I think it would mean, "I remained in the house," but not implying that you are staying there for an extended period of time and spending the night. It could be just for a few minutes or hours.
This conjugation of "quedarse" should help you with the different pronouns used for a reflexive verb: http://www.123teachme.com/spanish_verb_conjugation/QUEDARSE
That's what I thought. Isn't it implied by the "Yo" and the ending "é" that it is I doing the staying? So why is both me and yo needed?
The "yo" is redundant and could be dropped. The verb "quedé" (1st person preterit) already gives you the information that it is "I." The "me" however is required because "quedar" is being used reflexively, i.e. the verb is "quedarse."
Quedar used non-reflexively can mean, oh, about a billion different things. But quedarse is usually said when you are referring to remaining in a place. Fun example Quedar como un imbécil translates to To look like an idiot. Which is what trying to learn Spanish does to me. I don't do it to myself, so it's not reflexive, it is all Spanish's fault!
Ahhhh...I never understood whose fault it was. thanks. When I mix French and Spanish up, they both are to blame. What a relief. English of course sometimes gets a share. When we are doing our best, or think so, at least it is not a sin. No guilt involved in learning. I like that part too.
Actually that's not literal. Quedarse + con can mean keep, but not without con. Literally it is more like I left myself home, although that does seem to have an inherent contradiction in that it also implies that you left. That's the problem with literal translations. Sometimes it just doesn't quite make it.
Quedar = to remain; to be left. Quedarse = to stay.
Me quedé aquí = I stayed here.
I'm pretty sure "Quedarse" is a reflexive verb (verbs done to oneself.. Like you brushing YOUR hair), therefore you change the -se of the verb to match the subject in the sentence then put it in front of the verb. Then conjugate the verb to whatever tense.
But I'm pretty sure the Yo can be taken out due to the fact the "me" clarifies whom the sentence is talking about.
Yes yo is redundant in this sentence. It would be used to provide extra emphasis and/or clarity.
Can someone please give a more complete explanation as to why "me" is in this sentence??? Still don't understand why it is not "Yo quede en la casa."
As far as I can tell, the verb is "quedarse", which causes this sentence to be literally translated as "I kept myself in the house". The "me" indicates that the subject is performing the verb on itself. I think. I'm learning this stuff too.
"I kept myself in the house" was my first thought for an English translation too, but it wasn't accepted. It sounds perfectly reasonable to me.
That phrase, while grammatically acceptable, isn't really used in English. I'd treat this sentence similar to the use of "gustar." "Me gusta" means "pleasing to me" but we translate it as "like". This is one of those instances where a literal translation is not the common English phrasing, and isn't very practical.
Eugene it sounds as if you think that to keep oneself is somehow more literal a translation of quedarse than to stay. That is not true. Your sentence He kept himself out of jail would translate as Se mantuvo fuera de la cárcel. To keep oneself is mantenerse.
Quedar translates as to remain or to be left. Both of those words have a somewhat random circumstance feel. But when we make a conscious effort to remain somewhere Spanish wants a reflexive form. And in English we call it staying. So with the correct meaning of quedarse you are not going to find an appropriate English reflexive form to use. Spanish has many reflexive verbs. If better understanding English reflexives helps, that's great. But you are not going to really understand the "personality" of Spanish until you stop trying to equate it to English.
I think it should be accepted though, because it makes me understand the common way this phrase it's structured in Spanish. And I actually think it IS used in English, just not as commonly. E.g. "He kept himself out of jail".
"I was in the house" is about where you were. "I stayed at home" is about what you were doing. Was - from 'to be' (location). To stay - an action. Think about the question that might precede the statement. If someone asked you "Que hiciste el sabado pasado?", would you reply "Estuve en casa"? Or "me quedé en casa"?
Where were you on Saturday night?
I was at home
What did you do on Saturday night?
I stayed at home
First suggestion for quedé is 'was'. But i put that and it marked me wrong and said i should have put the second suggestion, 'stayed'.
It says me quedé, which means it's reflexive. Quedarse can't be translated as 'to be'.
Whether it is at the house, in the house, at at home, in the home, at the pad, in the pad, at the digs, in the digs, or whatever, does not matter at all.
Focusing on these different ways to say what the Spanish iwords are supposed to be saying corrupts one's brain. Turns it to mush and takes it completely off track, and out of whack.
"... en la casa" covers them all, and whatever. And that is all one needs to understand and be concerned about.
The simple English sentence that Duolingo provides is all it takes to understand the meaning of the Spanish remark. And that is all that is necessary. All one needs to know or be concerned about.
Duo does not teach translation, and we are not here to learn translation.
But of course, it one just has to be contrite as a way of life while disregarding Duolingo's purpose, and likes to think it is necessary to consider alternate English, you can't go wrong carrying on about how Duo did not accept, "... dug in the pad" or "I was a shut in" and telling about how you are going to report DL's failure, filling up Comment threads with one's innanity.
Yo me quedé en la casa. <<< me must put?? if I write Yo me quedé en la casa. can be accept also?
My guess is because it's not a normal thing do say. Since "kept" is a transitive verb, it would need an object, which doesn't exist in this sentence.
My question is that "I was" comes up as an acceptable translation for "me quede," but "I was in the house," isn't accepted as a translation.
I. Can't. Believe. It. I just made it through the lesson with NO LOST HEARTS!!!!!!!!!!!! And this is one of the sentences where I have trouble!!!
What good is the addition 'me' in this sentence? Does it alter the sentence's meaning?
Quedarse is a Reflexive Verb and REQUIRES an Indirect Object Pronoun. Its just another one of those rules. (Ahhh!!! Letting out my inner child scream of frustration myself with these!) lol)
Why is both 'yo' and 'me' needed here? Wouldn't either one of them suffice and the sentence would mean the same?
You need the "me" because it's a reflexive verb, but you could omit the "yo".
Why not, "I stayed at the house myself. I usually Imagine myself at the end when a reflexive "me" is used.
The "myself" thing is something we learn to help us understand how and when to use reflexive verbs in Spanish, but it's a bit of a bum steer because we often wouldn't use "myself" in the equivalent English expression. e.g. You know to say "me afeito" but in English you would just say "I shave" and not "I shave myself".
You've added the verb "to be", changing the meaning and grammar construct entirely. It's the difference between "me quedé" and "me estaba quedado".
Quedar was never introduced before this... I'd like to learn present tense before past :P
Hi, timothy. I believe you are right. "Quedar" was supposed to appear back in the "Present2" exercise, but I never had it when I went through that exercise. DL wanted me to strengthen that exercise today and I did it twice and again it didn't appear. The only time I have seen it before in DL was when doing a practice of everything. Have you seen, "Queda una manzana" (One apple remains) or "No queda leche" (There is no milk/No milk remains)?
Why and when do you write 'Yo me -----' (why not just 'me' in this sentence)?
The "yo" is redundant and usually not used unless you want to emphasize it. "Él salió, pero YO me quedé en la casa" (He went out, but I stayed at home).
Because that's not the equivalent of Yo me quedé en casa. The spanish phrase means you stayed at home, as opposed to going out. I can't imagine a situation where an English speaker would say "I kept myself in the house" unless they were describing how they protected themself from a crazed knifeman who was outside. Translation is not about the literal, it is about usage.
Basically i was told that the verb can be used without it being reflexive and that its much more normal that way. Saying yo and using me at the same time is redundant and a weird way of speaking. So either omit the 'me' or omit the 'yo'. I figure using both is just like us speaking english really.... properly. Like "We, together/ourselves, went to the store." You dont need we and together/ourselves because it's covered by using we already.
Actually, the "yo" is optional in this case, because the ending of the verb "quedé" makes the subject already obvious. However, the "me" is not redundant - it is necessary because this is a reflexive verb. In Spanish, reflexive verbs always carry a reflexive pronoun - it's part of the verb. "Quedar" can be used as a non-reflexive verb, but then it has a different meaning. Be careful about asking native speakers for grammatical advice, because just like in English, not everyone has correct grammatical knowledge or practice. :)
I think my incorrect answer ("I kept myself at home") was too complex. Oops.
If it is reflexive, why isnt my translation accepted of "I kept myself in the house"?
Although I don't think your translation is the normal way it would be said in English, I also don't think it is entirely wrong. If you feel strongly that it should be accepted, you should report it.
Are hints sometimes not available at this level, or is it some kind of glitch?
As far as I know, the hints are available through the whole course (at least through the Science skill where I am now). What is sometimes missing is the Conjugate option for the verbs. This must be some kind of glitch with the device you're using or with Duo's system. I also noticed that your language icons and levels are not appearing next to your name. You can contact Duolingo by using the Help link at the bottom of the page.
No. You have to conjugate the verb since there is only one. It is only when you have a verb phrase that you have the second verb in the infinitive and you can attach the the object to the end. Here we have a verb in the preterite. An example of a preterite verb phrase that would work (although it of course has a different meaning and is not a translation) would be Necesité quedarme en casa. The object can only be attached to the end of the imperative, the infinitive and the present participle/gerundio (ando/iendo form) Actually, the sentence you suggested might be turned into another type of sentence. Since the infinitive in Spanish is used as a noun you could say something like Quedarme in casa sería bueno where it is the subject of the sentence
I love how we never were taught the verb "permanecer" and expected to know it.
Duo is a great tool, but it really isn't a stand alone tool for learning a new language from scratch. There are many resources for grammar on the Web to reinforce your understanding of things like the imperfect and the subjunctive, but for building vocabulary I would suggest Memrise. I believe I saw a Spanish vocabulary just for Duolingo on there, but I am using the top 5000 words module. I had had a good Spanish background when I started on Duo about a year and a half ago or more, and actually I only learned a couple of words here, and it doesn't test my limits at all. If you use Memrise, it is free, there are many modules to choose from, and you can ignore the words you already know well, although I really only have done that with the most basic vocabulary. Duo's method for selecting sentences for a set module is such that they often present the word introduction sentence after the first use, or miss it altogether.
I'm already using Memrise. I'm almost done with the 3rd level on Spanish. I already wrote all of the words of Duolingo's Spanish on there.
The me in the sentence does not indicate that the house is yours. When you are talking about a person staying anywhere you use quedarse. Quedar alone is the remain that we translate as left. So the me is required whether or not you stayed at/in THE house or MY house. This sentence says the house. BTW I would find the way to insert accented letters for your device whatever it is. Quede and quedé vary both in stress and meaning and since subject pronouns are not required, you will often be saying something different from what you mean.
She was out at night. "I heard someone in the house." She pulled out her knife. "What happened here?" "I stayed at the house.: -My epic story made up solely of Duolingo sentences.
I got "i left me in the house" which i guess is pretty much the same thing
Yes, but why is it being used reflexively? That's what we need to know. If there is a reason, which I doubt...
When you want to say that a person stayed or remained somewhere you use quedarse I remember it by thinking that a person staying is a voluntary act, something they choose to do with their body. Quedar is more the result of circumstances.
This discussion section has good information, but when you are wondering about a reflexive or pronominal form I would always recommend you consult a dictionary. Spanish uses reflexive forms quite frequently and the meaning is not always obvious. Think of Ir and irse. Translators don't work, but a dictionary entry with examples can be quite helpful.
English has many of these verb preposition combinations which have very distinct meanings. Sometimes these have one word translations in some have phrasal translations. Quedarse means simply to stay. If you are talking staying up at night that is quedarse adelante amongst others. Here are translations for various meanings of stay up.
I answered "I kept myself in the house", and I think that should be accepted. I think it reinforces remembering the 'me'.
Maybe this is me being whiny, but why are we being introduced to past tense verbs that we haven't learned in their present form? Am I the only one feels like this is a one way ticket to confusion later?
The problem is that Duo is always adding more exercises to the program. That is great for people who have been working the program for a while, but less so for those who are just starting as it may mess with the introduction of words. Each unit has many more exercises than you have probably done. But nobody should try to learn Spanish without access to a verb conjugation program or book. I generally just use Spanishdict.com as both dictionary and conjugator.
Thanks, lynettemcw! I think prior to the past two levels my high school Spanish came back to me and it seemed less like nonsense. Now I have no prior knowledge (or memory) of these past tense verbs and some of these past tense verbs in their present tense. I'm going to start using your resource because there is no way I can learn all through repetition and not be horribly confused.
Oy! Tell me about it! I'm really trying to remember what they mean. It would really help when they introduce the verb to show the root verb so I even know what I'm working with and show whether it is regular or not. Basically, I'm coming to the realization that Duolingo is not going to work alone. Either I'm going to have to spend a bit of time with other resources like Spanishdict.com or get a tutor.
As I have understood, "en la casa" could be "in, or at the house or at home. So without the context I couldn't say whether he/me stayed at home or in/at someone else's house/home, ...Very confusing...
You are a little off. En la casa can be in/at the house, but at home is en casa. It is the lack of the definite article that turns at the house to at home. The same is true with voy a la casa and voy a casa. It is the only time casa is translated as home. Otherwise, hogar is home.
It's Duo's common for common convention. We say I stayed home in English. In Spanish that common expression uses quedarse. Spanish uses many reflexive verbs where it is a poor translation into English. We don't say I wash myself the hands, I raise myself the hand, He sits himself or any of these things. While it is literal to translate these expressions that way, the impression becomes that you are somehow adding some additional piece of information. But the reflexive verbs are just the way to say these things in Spanish. Leaving them off would not be correct in Spanish.
How would you differentiate "staying in the house" vs "staying at the house"? Which have different meanings in English
For the most part, you wouldn't. There are many examples between most languages where one language makes a distinction that the other does not and for the most part people don't miss the difference. But on those occasions where it is important to make the distinction, you simply reword the meaning which is the more limiting. So if there were a bad storm or a police action you could say Me quedé dentro de la casa. This literally means inside the house. There is always a way to reword. Some are easy like this or like using a demonstrative pronoun instead of the definite article say This coffee is bitter, because El café es amargo can mean either coffee in general is bitter or the particular coffee is bitter. Some situations would take more work. In the modern world it isn't that unusual for someone to refer to having two fathers in various situations. But padres also means parents, so that would take more work saying in Spanish. And there are converse situations where Spanish makes distinctions we don't in English.
Yes. You are overanalyzing the Spanish sentence from an English language perspective. The me is not an additional element. Thee me is what demonstrates the change from the verb quedar, which means to remain or be left (a static verb describing a state of being) to stay which is an active verb describing the choice made by a thinking being about its body. It is possible to use myself for some Spanish reflexive verbs, although it never really reflects the best translation, but with some verbs it doesn't work at all. This is one of those as is irse. Spanish reflexive verbs don't generally reflect something that is easily reflected in English and sometimes not really at all.
Not quite. Often hogar is the translation for home. But in common expressions like go home or stay home where the issue expressed is that you are talking about the place where you live, you can use casa without the la. So Yo me quedé en la casa is I stayed at the house and Yo me quedé en casa is I stayed home. Obviously there are many cases where they might mean the same thing, but each one lacks something that makes it definitively the same. If you say Yo me quedé en la casa, the house you stayed in might not be one you live in or even spend the night at. And if you say Yo me quedé en casa, it might refer to un departamento and not una casa. And of course en la casa might refer to in the house as opposed to outside in the yard, but most people would consider themselves at home if they were in their yard.
Yes. There are a few verbs that are reflexive when they refer to people. I tend to think of them as reflexive because for humans the action is a matter of choice or decision, but caerse wouldn't fit that. You don't generally fall by choice, but I can put that as something that fell under your responsibility. You weren't pushed, you fell. You weren't left, you stayed, etc.
So confusing. So what thia basically translates to is "I I I stayed in the house". Yo = I Me = I Quedé = I stayed. Why the need to use "I" THREE TIMES??
First of all there aren't three I. Yo is the only I there, although it is true that the form quedé can be said to contain I since the form is unique to I and the subject pronoun can always be omitted. So, to take an example from a different verb yo leo is I read and leo is I read. Yo leo isn't I I read. Me is NEVER I. It is always me or myself. Here the verb is quedarse. While quedar means to remain or be left, quedarse is used for the act of staying. So you can always translate without the Yo, but (yo) me quedé is how you say I stayed using quedar. You could also say (yo) permanecé, which is not reflexive.