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Do Latin enclitics change the position of stress in the word?

Dominae dominique

I know that if the word is declined or conjugated, and as a result the number of syllables in it changes, then the accent shifts accordingly: dóminus - dominṓrum

But do the enclitics like -que, -ne, -ve also cause such shifting, or they obtain their own accent?

In other words, is it "dóminīque" or "dominī́que" or "dóminī-que"?

November 10, 2019



do the enclitics like -que, -ne, -ve also cause such shifting

Yes, they do! Treat the enclitic as part of the word: dominī́que.


Are there any evidences to this statement in the works of classical writers or grammarians?


Good question. Apparently the situation is not so clear-cut, as grammarians seem to have indicated that an enclitic always draws the stress to the (new) penultimate syllable: músă -> musắque, which is not what I practice (músăque).


If anyone has found a good source on this topic, please share.


Thanks! I didn't see that link.

I found the similar info here: http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0001%3Apart%3D1%3Asection%3D2%3Asubsection%3D4%3Asmythp%3D12

When an enclitic is joined to a word, the accent falls on the syllable next before the enclitic, whether long or short: as, dĕă'que, ămārĕ've, tĭbĭ'ne, ită'que (and ... so), as distinguished from i'tăque (therefore). So (according to some) ex'inde, ec'quandō, etc.

Still, I don't understand the last sentence here. Are inde and quandō also enclitics?


I think, with ecquando, we're looking at a proclitic (the prefix ec- ), but I could be wrong. (meaning "at any time? ever?", with ec- prefixed to the quando, "when, at some time" word)


On the other hand, languages have words with primary and secondary stress: 'green'house

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