Do Latin enclitics change the position of stress in the word?
I know that if the word is declined or conjugated, and as a result the number of syllables in it changes, then the accent shifts accordingly: dóminus - dominṓrum
But do the enclitics like -que, -ne, -ve also cause such shifting, or they obtain their own accent?
In other words, is it "dóminīque" or "dominī́que" or "dóminī-que"?
Good question. Apparently the situation is not so clear-cut, as grammarians seem to have indicated that an enclitic always draws the stress to the (new) penultimate syllable: músă -> musắque, which is not what I practice (músăque).
If anyone has found a good source on this topic, please share.
Thanks! I didn't see that link.
When an enclitic is joined to a word, the accent falls on the syllable next before the enclitic, whether long or short: as, dĕă'que, ămārĕ've, tĭbĭ'ne, ită'que (and ... so), as distinguished from i'tăque (therefore). So (according to some) ex'inde, ec'quandō, etc.
Still, I don't understand the last sentence here. Are inde and quandō also enclitics?