"Post secundam horam prandium coquit."

Translation:After the second hour he cooks lunch.

November 13, 2019

This discussion is locked.


Does "post" always take the accusative?


As a preposition, yes. I think it can be used as an adverb as well.


I do think the time lesson in general could use some explanation of what "the ___ hour" actually is. Do they mean 2pm? Or just the second hour of some event? It feels like some context is missing that would help in understanding what we're learning.


It could refer to the ancient Romans' secunda diēī hōra (our 8 AM), secunda noctis hōra (our 8 PM), or the modern secunda hōra ante merīdiem/secunda hōra mātutīna (2 AM) or secunda hōra post merīdiem/secunda hōra postmerīdiāna (2 PM).


could someone kindly explain: Why is the pronoun subject omitted? Is that standard practice?


It tends to be omitted since the verb form will tell you the person (1st, 2nd, or 3rd person) and number (singular or plural) which the pronoun will also tell you.

In most contexts this is enough (maybe if the subject is general or specified beforehand) but the pronoun can be added for emphasis (maybe to clear up some ambiguities).


Many thanks - I guess the context also tells you the gender of the subject?...


Ah yes, I see - you've already cleared that up: the speaker/writer would indicate gender, if necessary.


As (I assume) it's referring to a specific time of day, dropping the "the" would work, no? "After Second Hour, he cooks lunch" (I'm thinking along the lines of the use of "bells" in naval dramas: e.g. Second Bell)


Little early for lunch isn't it?


Yes, two hours after sunrise! He should be making breakfast.


Because there is no subject in the sentence, we can't know the gender.


In multiple choice there is no 'he', Should I have put 'it'?

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