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  5. "Tha an dèideadh air Màrtainn…

"Tha an dèideadh air Màrtainn."

Translation:Martin has toothache.

November 28, 2019



Martin has a toothache?


If that wasn't accepted, report it. It should be.


Entering "a" wasn't an option, though I think it should have been. "An dèideadh" is literally "the toothache." "Martin has the toothache on him."


This translation is British English, I have never heard, “someone has toothache”. It would always be “someone has a toothache” in American English. It’s the same with hospital, in America we go to the hospital, in Britain they just go to hospital. So if you are American, you will learn some British English here along with Gaelic, no extra charge.


I agree, wouldn't an English speaker say "a toothache". I can understand the reasoning for keeping a translation like "Tha Màrtainn a faicinn...." as "Martin is seeing..." as opposed to ''sees'' but an article of some sort seems warranted. If I'm translating it for someone in English I'm saying Martin has a toothache.


This has been discussed on a previous question. I am in southern England, and we would say Martin has toothache, with no article.


I looked these up in Google Translate... dèideadh = toothache; dèideag = toy.


I know what they both mean . I just can't hear a difference!!


Dèideadh ends with a -g sound. Dèideag ends with a -k sound. It's certainly not a big difference, though!


Part of it is this speaker. He's pronouncing it very much like a -k sound, as if it were spelt with a G.

The other speakers make a clearer distinction with either a velar fricative or a voiced velar stop (which doesn't normally exist in Gaelic, so the distinction is retained)


To me, wenn i hear dèideadh it is the same as dèideag?

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