"How is he?"

Translation:Ciamar a tha e?

November 29, 2019



Why is the 'a' required here?


The relative particle (that/which/who). Notionally goes after any interrogative, but normally vanishes if the interrogative ends in a vowel.


So it works just like that particle 'a' indicating the vocative case? Or is it even the same?


No, completely different "a". This one only precedes verbs.

And there's the masculine possessive pronoun = a …the feminine possessive pronoun = a …the preposition "to" = a …and the infinitive particle = a

Good luck.


I still don't quite understand how "a" works in this sentence. So you use it after any interrogative like "How"? Would you also use it for all interrogatives like "what, when, where, who, which, whom, whose, why"? (I had to look up what interrogatives were, even though English is my first language haha).


Think of the French "Qu'est-ce que c'est?" (What is it that it is? = What is it?). "A tha" is the relative particle in Gaelic "that is". what you are saying is "How is it that you are?"


"Would you also use it for all interrogatives"

In theory, except they often end in vowels, so it's 'invisible' in those cases, but it is there (as the grammatical implications of its presence remain).

And an exception is "càite?" (where?), which takes the dependent form of the verb (e.g "Càit a bheil?").


Why isn't it "Tha a ciamar"? In my experience Tha usually goes first.


So will ciamar always be followed by a?


So, on other sentences, how come a explanation mark is not required but a question mark us on thus one?? :/


Is ciamar or a variation of it ised in most sentences using how

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