"Ella vino sola."
Translation:She came alone.
I'm a native Spanish speaker, "venir" (to come)and "llegar" (to arrive) are not the same, at least in my language. When you say "ella vino sola" you are saying that she went to the place where you were, or to the place where you are now, and that she was alone, whereas if you say "ella llegó sola" you are not stating where she went, you are only saying that she finished her movement to get to a place.
Yes, but the first sentence of this lesson they stated that vino meant arrived. I wish they would be consistent. arrived recently, now came alone. Why on earth do they say arrive in one place and came in another?
I am in the past tense verb skill, but so far I have not encountered your sentence. But I do know from a past lesson that was under present tense the use of vino for arrived. But here is the difference. When using venir 'to come' it is used for arrived when the subject is going to the place of the speaker. So in the model sentence , one has to assume that 'She came to the place of the speaker. If the speaker is going some place else, you would use llegar. I think this a very poor choice of an example to illustrate 'came'. How were you suppose to know when Duo used arrived for came in a prior sentence?
If there is a difference between llegar and venir, then they should let us know that. Or, better yet, don't include "arrived" as a translation when it's not going to accept it.
I understand that there will be some flaws . . . but really, I'm not asking a lot. All I want is perfection ;)
IMHO, A lot of people don't learn well from a wall of text. And there are PLENTY of places you can seek out that information, starting with the message board like you did.a
By asking the question and investigating why, you still learned it. All part of the process. It's not a linear thing; it's learning organically, through repetition and gradual accumulation, and yes, making mistakes and puzzling out the reason for them. You still learned it right? And now you know to look for the differences.
It helps to not look at a wrong answer or even a lesson that you don't get passed on as a bad thing - merely a prompt for further investigation and clarification.
Madd, the inclusions in the pull down list are rarely all accepted. Many words have various usages and Duo provides them in the list so we can be aware of them. The list is not a grab bag of choices. And Duo provides a great deal more alternate usages for many words on our Words page.
It is to show you they can be used this way. English does this all the time, and differently in different regions. English is EXTREMELY inconsistent. I wish people would get a grip and stop griping about a great program. Gripe about the bugs, don't ❤❤❤❤❤ about what you don't understand. Ask questions on the board to figure out what you don't understand. READ the answers given. There is one great one on this thread...you replied to it!
They aren't always clear about literal vs situational translations and distinctions between similar words. This is a problem on their end. In the meantime, I recommend wordreference.com for any words you are unsure of. You can also always google x vs x, (e.g. ser vs estar) and if they are commonly confused there are usually articles explaining the difference.
Duolingo has been using that exact sentence very early on in the program. It's a great way to remember it!
"Ella vino con vino" is actually what we would say. We use "el vino" when we have talked about a specific wine. I think in English is the same. For example, "ella vino con el vino" (because we had told her to bring wine), or "ella vino con vino" (we hadn't told her to bring wine, in fact, we didn't know she was going to bring it).
I think it's time for DUO to introduce a grammar section. I mean with so many irregular and regular verbs, plus the pronouns we have tons of combinations of how a verb can end.
now i am a little confused, because "sola" is an adverb in this case, and I didn't think adverbs were conjugated by gender. Did i miss something?
The answer, as I have found out, is that this type of word is not really an adverb. I don't fully understand it but someone told be to look up "predicate adjective" in English grammar, and apparently it is something similar. The verb is not modified but is a linking verb, as I understood it.
I think it helps to think of it this way It would only be an adverb if it described "how she came" which it doesn't.
I read the link given by Clara Elizabeth, and I (like Clara) still don't quite understand how solo in this sentence is an adjective rather than an adverb. The link says you have to have one of the linking verbs in their list (like "is"), which linking verbs and examples I totally understand and always have understood as linking an adjective to describe the subject. However, the sentence in this exercise doesn't use one of those linking verbs. If the sentence had been "She is alone," I would totally understand that alone is describing she and is therefore an adjective. Additionally, using your tip, I still would've said solo is modifying the verb to say how she "came" (-alone) rather than modifying the subject "she". I see this as similar to saying: "She came 'rapidly'"-an adverb modifying how she came, not an adjective describing "she." My thinking that alone in this sentence is an adverb seems to go along with the link www.wordsmyth.net/?rid=1119 which gives the example of alone being an adverb in their example sentence, "He traveled alone..." So, I'm still confused as to why Duo treats solo in this sentence as an adjective and therefore changes the gender to sola?
Well, here comes a guy with a comment two years down the road: Yes, congratulations Jana, I have been puzzled by this and came to your conclusion a while back; I believe your logic is irrefutable. Doubt we're alone. And listen to the sound of silence. Surely, this is a serious question that deserves a serious answer. It may be a case of 'That's just the way it is' -- but if so, why not say so?
reply to casey: But it does. How did she come? She came alone, as distinct from in a group, with her boyfriend/husband/lesbian partner or via parachute -- i.e., adverb.
Venir is an irregular verb in nearly all tenses (notice that the root of the verb - "ven-" - is changed as well, not just the ending). The usual rules kind of go out the window with irregular verbs. Check out this page its conjugation in different tenses: http://www.spanishdict.com/conjugate/venir.
For some reason, the word "vino" made me think of drinking. I'm really going to struggle for a while with the past tense of verbs.
It's alright, I think we all have some trouble with this one (past tenses). If you're still working away at it, I've found this super helpful https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=org.muth.android.trainer_pro_es
Sometimes it sounds as if she is pronunciating the Spanish V almost like an English V... Any thoughts?? I've been rubber-banding myself (sternly training myself lol) to keep from saying all these Vs like Vs and saying them as Bs instead.. With my friends in Argentina there is no difference in the sound and I can hear no difference (between the V and the B, I mean) but with other accents, maybe.....? It seems sometimes I hear a subtle difference.. So I would appreciate anyone being able to tell me if it's my imagination or not. :-)
I would like to know this too. I know there will be variations depending on location, but the pronunciations on Duo don't seem to be very consistent.
As far as I know, on her own or by herself, would be "por solo". That's what students always tell me when they say they did something by themselves.
Do you mean "ella vino solo"? If that's the case, it's wrong because, in Spanish, adjectives agree in gender and number with the noun. So, if you were talking about a group of girls, you would say "ellas vinieron solas".
I think he means "solo" as in how in English we use it for "alone" or "by your/her/himself.
Even in that case, "solo" agrees in gender and number with the noun (when it means "alone" or "by you/her/himself"). The only situation in which you can use "solo" without agreement with the noun, is when it means "only".
I'm not sure what you mean. In English "solo" means "by yourself" not "only". There is no gender change in the English language.
An example: "There are only six apples in the basket" -> "Solo hay seis manzanas en la cesta". In English there is no gender change, but that's the rule for Spanish: all adjectives agree in gender and number with the noun, it doesn't matter if it's attributive or predicative. For example,
The car is red -> El coche es rojo
A red car -> Un coche rojo
The table is red -> La mesa es roja
The red table -> La mesa roja
The red chairs -> Las sillas rojas
As you can see, adjectives go usually AFTER the noun, seldom BEFORE.
I am having trouble knowing when to use the accent over the i's and o's and when not to. Based on the conjugation guide I would think this should read Ella Vin?ó Sola. Can someone help?
Elizabeth I would add that for regular verbs you can always expect the 3rd person singular (he she it) to end with that ó, and pronounced with the accent falling on that "o" but alas, venir is an irregular verb, and that is why it is like so. But all is not bad in the land of irregular verbs... Many fall into different "groups" where they'll have the same irregular conjugating.. Best wishes! :-)
In Spanish we use a sign over the stressed vowel (we call it "tilde"). If there's no sign, the ending of the word will tell you wich is the stressed syllabe: if it ends with a vowel, "n" or "s", the stressed syllabe is the last but one, in all other cases the stressed syllabe is the last one. "vino" has no "tilde", and it ends with a vowel, so the stressed syllabe is "vi".
Sometimes a single word in a language has two or more meanings in another language. For example, your verb 'to be' can be translated into Spanish not only as "ser" or "estar", but even as "tener" ("I am 43" => "Tengo 43 años", "I am hungry" => "Tengo hambre"). Arrive is translated into Spanish as "llegar", and came is translated as "vine/viniste/vino/vinimos/vinísteis/vinieron" as well as "venía/venías/venía/veníamos/Veníais/Venían".
Should "vino" have an accent mark? According to the conjugation table Duolingo has implies that all past tense that use "o" have an accent mark. Is it irregular? or am I just missing something?
Yes, it's irregular. The regular form would be "venió", but that doesn't exist. Besides, in Spanish the spelling tells you exactly how a word is pronounced, and how it's stressed. The rules are:
With accent mark: the vowel with the accent mark is the stressed one.
No accent mark, word ends with vowel, or -n or -s: the stressed syllabe is the one before the last one.
No accent mark, other endings: the stressed syllabe is the last one.
With these rules, you know how to pronounce a word just by seeing it written.
Apparently Duolingo users are not the only ones confused on this word: http://twitter.com/josrased/status/598036375271809024/photo/1 (this isn't my post; I found it linked on http://elcomidista.elpais.com/)