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  5. "Tha bròg aig Calum."

"Tha bròg aig Calum."

Translation:Calum has a shoe.

December 26, 2019



So translating "aig" as has seems a bit weird to me, I'm sure it's right but I can't help but think of dutch. I mean this structure resembles the Dutch translation I have in my head: "De schoen [van] Calum". If anyone even understands what I mean could you tell me if that's a fair comparison?


In "Tha bròg aig Calum." bròg would appear to be the subject. In "Calum has a shoe" Calum is the subject. Are these two really equivalent?


'A shoe has Calum' doesn't quite sound right in English though.


Why not 'the shoe that belongs to Callum' ... is brown


I think maybe that is a good way to initially get your head round the idea of possession. Tha cèic agam - I have a cake/ a cake is mine/ a cake belongs to me (agus tha mi ag ithe i !)


I'm still puzzling - but it's about stress. 'Tha bròg aig Calum' would appear to be a sentence about a shoe. There is a shoe - what's special about it? It belongs to Calum. In 'Calum has a shoe' the sentence is about Calum. What's special about Calum? He has a shoe.


so this this like saying "its a SHOE calum has" or is it for explaining possession when you are not addressing them in person

so i have is agam, you have is agad and they have is aig?


Your phrasing resolves some of my wibbles above, because your sentence is still about Calum. Literally the sentence is 'a shoe is at Calum' as gaelic has no [need for a] verb for 'to have' .


Since two of something apparently uses the same form as the singular, could this also mean "Calum has shoes"?

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