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  5. "Me gustan ambos."

"Me gustan ambos."

Translation:I like both.

April 27, 2013



I think that I like them both is a better translation


I third that motion. Me gustan = I like them,+ both.


"I like them both" was accepted on 3/27/15.


So do I! It should be accepted!


8.27.2014 still not accepted, definitely should be.


01.09.2015 still not accepted, but I also agree it should be accepted.


8.31.16 Accepted!!!


bisexual snickering


why not just" me gusta ambos" = i like both, what value or significane does the N add


As said below, "gustar" actually means "to be pleasing", so what this sentence really says is "both are pleasing to me". The verb "gustar" is being applied to "ambos" and since "ambos" is plural, the verb must agree with that.


Gustar does NOT actually mean to be pleasing to. It means to like. We are taught the false is pleasing to simply because it matches the syntax and grammar of gustar with the thing liked being the subject. But using is pleasing to makes people believe that it means something somewhat different than to like. It means to like or perhaps to be liked by. Me gusta café. Coffee is liked by me at least sends the same message as opposed to is pleasing to me.

[deactivated user]

    You might want to check SpanishDict for their definition of gustar. There's more to it than your spiel here suggests.



    You are correct. I overstated the case. I just get annoyed by people teaching the translation of simple, everyday sentences like Me gusta las dulces as Candy is pleasing to me. It not only is an awkward English sentence, it would be interpreted differently because it is uncommon. If some said that to me in English, I would be looking for some hidden meaning simply because they didn't say like. Gustar is a quite robust verb and has many related uses and meanings (and word forms). I do actually use the same trick to check myself if I want to say something more complicated in this structure like We like him or they like me. It has some use, and you could even define like as being pleased by something. But when the impact of a translation creates a strange or different feeling about what is being said, then a different one should be used. There is a reason for all these teaching gimmicks, but if you don't explore their limitations, you get in trouble. I have similar issues with teaching used to with the imperfect, and CERTAINLY with teaching that estar is for temporary situations and ser for permanent ones.


    "Both are pleasing to me" is marked wrong 01/14/14 reported


    To my knowledge, "Los Dos" means "The two" and is used when there are 2 items, however "Ambos" is used when you are tying 2 things together. They are almost always interchangeable though with "Ambos" being more formal


    Los dos should be accepted if it's not. Los dos is more common when speaking, and ambos is more common in formal writing.



    Thank you so much. Your explanation solves the mystery for me of how this verb works.


    How would you say, 'they both like me'?


    Using the verb gustar (to please) I think that would be "les gusto a ambos." Literally, I please them both.


    I think that would have to be, "a ambos de ellos les caigo bien." literally "to both of them (to them) i fall well." "a ambos les gusto" would be highly poetic, I think.

    Anyone else have some light to shine on this? Or does the spanish speaking world just never admit to displeasing anyone :p


    Thank you. All of your comments have been helpful.


    Is it better to say 'ambos' or 'los dos' ?


    This is a question for native speakers. I learned "me gusta" for I like years ago, but I was reading 'La Casa en Mango Street" by Sandra Cisneros and instead of" me gusta" it always used "me cae bien." Is this the new way of saying I like or is it specific to Latinoamerica or to one of the countries of Latinoamerica?


    From what I read me caer is used for liking people, not things. Did Cisneros use it in relation to things? Gracias


    No, only for people. Thanks for clearing this up.


    Me cae bien means "it falls on me well" - I like it/her/him.

    Me cae mal means "it falls on me badly" - I don't like it/her/him


    i put me gusta los dos and marked it wrong it is the thing of me gusta ambos.


    Me too!! Both - excuse the pun - should be accepted translations. I am losing so many hearts (in all languages) over small but important details like this, & it's driving me nuts ! (Sorry Duolingo; I'm still very appreciative that it's a free and usually great service...!)


    'I like them both' is still not accepted. I have reported it 30/12/14. This module seems less polished than some others, is it newer?


    porque no ambos?


    Why not both?!?!?!!!


    Ever says: YAY!!!!!!


    But "gustan" means they like .. So i thought they both like me.. "me gusto ambos " will be i like them both


    "gustar" is a weird verb, it actually means "to be pleasing". So it's backwards. To say "they both like me" you would be sayings "I am pleasing to both of them" - "a ambos les gusto"

    I like both would be "me gustan ambos"



    Why it is not " they both like me"? "gustan" means they or you like , doesn't it?


    "gustar" is translated as "to like", yes, but it's a weird verb that actually means "to be pleasing", so no this would not mean "they both like me", it means "I like both"



    why not use Los dós? I spent a month in spain and a few weeks in latin america, and i have NEVER heard "ambos"


    You could use "los dos" (no accent). Report it if it marks you wrong.


    whi doesn't both please me work


    I like them both, they are big!


    so how would you say "they both like me"?


    Gustan=They like Therefore I assumed Me gustan meant 'They like me' Therefore 'Me gustan ambos' =' They both like me'


    "I like both of them" was accepted on 5/27/17.


    Shouldn't it be acceptable to translate to "Both are liked by me"? I tried that, but it was not accepted.


    I'm still confused on the "Me gustan..." I thought "gustan" implies that there is a plural subject yet "me" is singular. Am I making any sense?


    Gustar works opposite to like, which is why some people compare it to saying that X is pleasing to me. This is not a good translation but does show the correct subject and object. Me is the indirect object here and ambos is the subject which explains the plural. You will get used to this fairly easily when talking about what you like, but when talking about other people liking people or things you will probably have to think carefully for a while. Here are some examples

    Me gusta chocolate. I like chocolate Te gusta chocolate You like chocolate

    Me gustan las vacaciones. I like vacation(s) (vacaciones is always plural)

    Les gustamos. They like us. Nos gustan We like them

    Me gustas. I like you. Nos gustas. We like you

    Te gusto You like me. Le gusto. He/She likes me.

    There are other Spanish verbs like this.



    Hey thanks for the response. It at least makes it a little more clear to me what's going on. I'm rather slow when it comes actually comprehending any foreign language.


    what is the difference between "mi" and "me"?


    'Mi' = my; 'me' = to me (indirect object)


    Me is both a direct and indirect object pronoun, but here it is indirect.


    You're quite right - 'me' can be both direct and indirect object pronoun.


    How do you say " they both like me" in Spanish?


    Les gusto is I like them. The description of the indirect pronoun would go into a prepositional phrase with a so it would be A ambos les gusto. But some instinct or experkence is suggesting to me that perhaps A los dos les gusto might be a little bit of a more common way for a Spanish speaker to express this, but that might be off base.


    The verb is gustan = plural 3rd person and 'me' is the object of the verb. Shouldn't it be "they both like me"?


    No. Gustar is one of a special class of verbs generally referred to as verbs like gustar. These verbs are backwards compared to English. In this sentence, ambos is actually the subject of the sentence and the me is the indirect object pronoun. You will sometimes see people translate this sentence as Both are pleasing to me. As a common for common translation it is horrible, but it does better represent the way the sentence is constructed. So they both like me would be A ambos les gusto it takes a while to get used to them. But there are quite a few verbs like it.



    Thank you for your explanation.


    Could a possible English translation be, "Both please me." ?


    It is a translation that some Spanish language courses promote because of the fact that it better reflects the grammar of the Spanish sentence. But in terms of usage, I think it changes the tone and to some extent the meaning. And actually it would generally be stated as Both are pleasing to me to reflect a passive voice, since it is the me who actually is affected. The verb meaning to please is agradar.


    Why isn't "Both please me" accepted? I tried it on a lark, knowing "I like both" works, but the literal translation doesn't.


    Why is "both are pleasing to me" not excepted? Isn't that the literal meaning? I know that "I like both" is what is colloquially known.


    You are mistaking a parallel construction for a literal meaning. People are taught the pleasing to convention because it has a similar construction in terms of subject and object, but to say that this is a literal translation is misleading. To be pleasing to somebody is a passive construction and this is not that. It is not quite possible to have a truly literal translation as the languages work differently. But to translate something that is said constantly in predictable circumstances as a phrase which sounds awkward at best instead of the appropriate phrase which is said in precisely the same circumstances in English would be misleading. There is no phrase that is more literal for this, when all factors are considered, than like.


    What's the difference between 'Me" and "Yo"?


    Me is the object pronoun, both direct or indirect. Yo is the subject pronoun. Many times when you see me beginning a sentence it is because the subject pronoun is omitted, but gustar belongs to a special class of verbs in Spanish which most people simply call verbs like gustar. These verbs are "backwards" vis à vis their English counterparts. The object of the English sentence is the subject of the Spanish sentence and the subject becomes the object. These verbs also most commonly precede the subject as well, further confusing the novice. The subject of this sentence is actually ambos, which is why the verb form is gustan and not gusto. You will see people translate gustar sentences as to be pleasing to, which would make this sentence Both are pleasing to me. While that helps demonstrate the grammatical structure of the Spanish sentence, however, by any normal standard of translation which takes into account what would actually be said in English in the same circumstances, I like both is the correct translation.



    Well, I was always taught that "gustar" means "to give pleasure". I thought I would test Duolingo here. They shot me down on my answer "Both give me pleasure". There is a comment in here saying that we've been misinformed about "gustar" and the sentence "Me gustan ambos" should literal translate to "Both are like by me". But I doubt that would be accepted either. When we are leaning a new language, there is a reason why the teachers don't want us to literally translate everything. Our teachers want us to understand the new language in terms of our native language. Every time I decide that I like two different bicycles, I'm not going to say "Both give me pleasure". My head is too far in the gutter to allow myself to say that.


    The challenge with gustar is always to find an expression that explains the "backwards" syntax of gustar. That's where it gives me pleasure or it pleases me come in. But the problem is gustar is used exactly as we use to like, and when we try to mimic the Spanish syntax and grammar we end up with something that is at least a little awkward. So keep the gives me pleasure or pleases me in the back of your mind so that you can correctly construct the gustar constructions that you hear less like les gustamos, they like us (we are pleasing to them), but always translate it with like.


    Can I say , I like both like this? Me gusto ambros.


    I assume it is a typo, but you spelled ambos wrong. But no, your sentence is grammatically incorrect. Most people talk about "verbs like gustar", but I just call them backwards verb. In the sentence Me gustan ambos, ambos, which is plural, is actually the subject of the sentence. That is why you will sometimes see them translated with the phrase "is pleasing to me". I hate that as a translation because it sounds so awkward in English, but I still do sometimes use it to figure out sentences like they like you, which would be les gustas. It gets quite easy rather early with I like (something) You just use gusta for singular things and gustan for plural. Remember that yo forms end in o in the present tense. So the verb is NOT talking about your liking.


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