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"I have the right to call my lawyer."

Translation:Tengo el derecho de llamar a mi abogado.

4 years ago

11 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/E.T.s_Son
E.T.s_Son
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Poder alguien explica el uso "de" en esta frase

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AlexisLinguist
AlexisLinguist
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I'm no expert on this (seems to be something you have to memorize), but I believe the "de" is of here. "I have the right of calling my lawyer". Does this help?

  • Dice: "¿Alguien puede explicar el uso de "de" en esta frase?"
4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/E.T.s_Son
E.T.s_Son
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Gracias por la explicación y corrigiendo mi pregunta

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AlexisLinguist
AlexisLinguist
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De nada.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Laragazza215994

Correction: Podría alguien explicar or puede alguien explicar...

In Spanish, usted tiene el derecho De o tiene derecho A. (You use TO in English). It's very common to exchange prepositions a, de and with in Spanish. You will need to practice and memorize them. Good luck

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rfinchcrespo

Why "llamar a mi abogado" and not just "llamar mi abogado"?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/marcy65brown
marcy65brown
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"Mi abogado" is the direct object of "llamar" in this sentence. Since he's also a person, he gets a "personal a." The "personal a" is not translated into English, and when you're translating from English to Spanish it can be hard to remember at first. But it needs to be before direct objects that are people or pets, and sometimes just animals you like.
I admire my grandmother. Admiro a mi abuela. I met your neighbor. Conocí a tu vecino. We saved the horses. Salvamos a los caballos.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Slingles

Why is it "a llamar a mi abogado" and not "llamar a mi abogado". What is the extra "a" for?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/wordwing

05/23/18. Apparently, DL accepts either "a llamar" or "de llamar." But why have either of these prepositions before the infinitive at all? Do not think that it is because in English we say "to call" and in Spanish the prepositions "a" or "de" substitute for "to." See DL Lesson "V. Modal (Verbs: Modal)," where the infinitive is translated as 'to verb' without any preceeding preposition.

Think the correct answer to the question has to do with what PRECEEDS "a" [the verb "tener" or (more likely) the phrase "(tener) el derecho"], rather than what FOLLOWS "a" [the infinitive "llamar"].

In the many examples given by www.spanishdict.com for the phrase "(tener) el derecho," "a" is invariably appended to the end of that phrase before all infinitives (regardless of which infinitive is used). So, I think one simply has to memorize that the complete fixed phrase is "(tener) el derecho a" (to have the right to) and the "to" implicit with any infinitive is simply dropped in the English translation as redundant. This is only an educated guess with no authority located, so would appreciate if any native speakers or Spanish teachers would weigh in here.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Sammy710366

I was torn between

  1. "Tengo el derecho de llamar a mi abogada."
  2. "Tengo el derecho de llamar a mi abogado."

It was a tough choice, and I chose the first one. And then I lost.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/marcy65brown
marcy65brown
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Now both are required as the answers to the multiple choice question I had today (3/Aug/17).

1 year ago