Translation:The child has been adopted by my uncle and my aunt.
I didn't try this, but would it be acceptable to switch the two people around, since "my aunt and uncle" is the more common word order in English?
In real translation, yes, but the problem is that Duolingo, being a computer, can't discern whether or not you understand or have confused the words for "uncle" and "aunt" in your head. So it's better to stick with the same order as Duolingo gives.
Kind of a tangent but anyone know why english speakers (or at least northeastern americans) generally order aunt then uncle?
It's probably way too late to answer this, but you always start with the word which has the (stressed) vowel nearer the front of your mouth. That's why we say black and white and the French say blanc et noir.
Never too late, Sara! And thank you for that information. I never before considered the formation of vowels as a factor.
It is just easier to say I think. Try saying uncle and aunt and it doesn't roll off the tongue so easily.
I've often wondered that myself. The woman always seems to come first when talking about relatives: mom and dad, grandma and grandpa (though we say brother and sister).
I'm not sure , but I think the rule is alphabetic...Aunt & Uncle, Boy and Girl, Man and Woman, Gail and Doug, Jim and Susan...etc.
Interesting theory, but no one ever thinks about it when they say it, so I doubt that's the case. I think it's probably just whatever sounds better.
This is what I learned many years ago and still use today. Also, i learned that one never puts oneself first in a list of people, eg. my brother and I, not me and my brother. I still correct children when I hear it, bu to no avail lol (sorta)
@nbreen3, for you and anyone else who might want to know- Americans usually mention the women first. This was a tradition established a Very long time ago and was done to show respect for the woman. It is the same sentiment that gave rise to a man opening the door for a woman, the phrase,"Ladies first." And the gentleman's belief of, "women and children first..." We still (hopefully), teach our daughters to never be involved with any man who doesn't show her proper respect.
I agree. However if that's the case why was the correct response "kid" and not child?
The difference in these verb tenses is difficult to explain, but they do not mean quite the same thing. In some ways it's similar to the difference between the passé composé and the imparfait in French. You would use "was" adopted if you were discussing the action as an event at a specific time. E.g. "The child was adopted in 1988." You would use "has been adopted" when it is an act that has been completed at some unspecified point in the past (as you can see I am even using this verb tense in this sentence). For example, if you returned to an orphanage you visited some time ago and inquired about a baby you saw on the original visit, an employee could inform you, "The child has been adopted." If you then asked, "When?", the person would have to respond, "The child was adopted two months ago." It does not make sense to say, "The child has been adopted two months ago."
I love your response ! Now, it's totally clear for me. I will use the same explanation when I will have the opportunities. Many thanks. :)
I'm glad it helped, and I'm sorry you had to wait a year for someone to answer your question!
Why are there two past participles of 'etre' and of 'adopter', and why do they follow 'avoir'?
That's just how passive constructions work in French. Remember in English it works in almost the exact same manner. "a été" is basically "has been".
Active voice: The dog ate the homework. / Le chien a mangé mon devoir.
Passive voice: The homework had been eaten by the dog. / Mon devoir a été mangé par le chien.
(Of course the more common passive voice construction would be "The homework was eaten by the dog." but I used "had been eaten" for emphasis).
Please, for L'enfant a été adopté, explain the difference between the child was adopted and the child has been adopted
They are both valid (and accepted) translations of the French sentence. The only way to tell which it is is from context, which we don't have here.
Interesting that Duo gave just me "the kid" instead of "the child" as the correct translation......in previous questions and discussions it has been said that in French it is incorrect to use kid/kids for enfant/enfants.
If referring to a female child, is there a reason why "l'enfant a éte adoptée par mon oncle et ma tante" is not acceptable?
No, it is correct and should be accepted. It is quite the exception though, normally the grammatical gender of a noun and the sex of the designated person are completely irrelevant to each other (although they match more often than not, granted). For example "Cette personne a éte adopté" is ungrammatical even if it's a male. But 'enfant' can be feminine or masculine, following the child's sex, while not changing itself (so there is no 'une enfante'). That is very rare in the French language, but also happens with some jobs "un chef, une chef"
So to sum up, and unless I underestimate your proficiency, you're right, but you're wrong to be right :)
I agree that they are the same, however Duo is asking for the more formal "Aunt" in this sentence. I have been marked wrong for writing "dad" instead of "father" previously ;}
Why does "the child HAD been adopted..." not work? One would commonly say that in English, and they both mean the same.
That would be "L'enfant avait été adopté."
"Has been" and "had been" are not synonomous. The latter is in the past perfect indicates that the action occured before another action, which would be expressed in the simple past.
Could someone explain to me how this is the 'passive voice'?
Passive voice is used when the focus is on the action. It is not important or not known, however, who or what is performing the action.
But aren't 'my uncle and my aunt' performing the action of adopting the child?
They are, but the difference is that the verb is conjugated to agree with l'enfant rather than mon oncle et ma tante.
"L'enfant a été adopté par mon oncle et ma tante."
"Mon oncle et ma tante ont adopté l'enfant."
So, in the passive voice, the recipient of the action comes first, and the verb is conjugated according to it, instead of whoever performed the action.
What's the difference between de and par? I got this 'est aimé de son peuple' not 'par son peuple'.
Here's the little bit I understand, although both mean "by", they have different uses. Par is used to describe 1) a manner of doing something, 2) also means through 3) also means according to. De is used to show 1) possession, 2) a reason or cause, 3) to show the origen of someone/thing (ie: de America = from America), 4) in a French name ie: Jean de Baptiste (fictional) it indicates royalty.
Well, thank you! Noted! Anyway, this is how I understand the usage: PAR is used when the subject does something to the object whereas DE is used for anything accept for what PAR is used for. CMIIW.
Would "The child has been adopted by my uncle and aunt" be accepted? In English we wouldn't normally add the modifier to both.
Did Joy's question get answered, b/c I've often wondered the same thing..."my uncle and my aunt" is so wordy, but "mon oncle et tante" seems wrong, as does "mes oncle et tante".
"the child was adopted by my aunt and uncle." Ladies before gentlemen. Uncle and aunt sound just a bit off to my ears. Yeah it is supposed to be "Mr. and Mrs., because there was a Mr. before there was a Mrs, but other than that, the female should come first by etiquette