1. Forum
  2. >
  3. Topic: Scottish Gaelic
  4. >
  5. "Tha mo stamag goirt."

"Tha mo stamag goirt."

Translation:My stomach is sore.

January 22, 2020



If "stamag" is feminine, why doesn't "goirt" lenite here?


'Goirt' isn't directly describing the 'stamag'. It's the difference between saying you have a sore stomach and saying your stomach is sore.

  • sore stomach > stamag ghoirt
  • my stomach is sore > tha mo stamag goirt

If you said 'tha mo stamag ghoirt', that would translate as 'my sore stomach is'. It is an unfinished sentence. :)


So in "stamag ghoirt" sore is an adjective modifying stomach and "tha mo stamag goirt" sore is an adverb modifying is.


That is a logically possible interpretation and there could be some languages that do that. After all, it is not easy to tell the difference between the functions of the two wells in I sleep well so I am well, but in general, in both Gaelic and English, we use adjectives rather than adverbs in this situation. We say I am cold, rather than I am coldly.

What Joanne is getting at is that adjectives are used in two different ways, which have fancy names:

  • Attributive: tha mo stamag ghoirt mì-ghoireasach - 'my sore stomach is inconvenient'
  • Predicative: tha mo stamag goirt - 'my stomach is sore'

I have given a description of the difference on another question:



Thank you for all the links you give! They always prove to be very helpful!


Thanks so much - I've had this same sort of problem before - I shall persevere!


It is mentioned in the notes but it is not very noticeable. If you want a longer explanation I have given one answering https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/36917434?comment_id=37901499


What's the difference between directly using possessives and using a periphrase? Does it change anything?

Learn Scottish Gaelic in just 5 minutes a day. For free.