We don't know. For some strange reason, DL does not accept 'gained' for 'se ganado', even though it is listed first in the hints.
Can anyone "gain" anbody's love? I've never heard of gaining love from native speakers.
I believe because she is the object of his love. I'm not too up on my English grammar terms but I think that's the reason. She was the object of his action. "se" would not be required if she had just earned money.
I think you are right, so I wrote 'She had earned herself his love.' Literal translation, not accepted. I think it should be, but am not certain.
generally "ganar" means "win" and the reflexive "ganarSE" means "earn". Therefore, "...se habia ganado..." means "...had earned...." as opposed to " ...had won..." or "...had won herself....". There seems to be some argument about this, and even DL is not consistent, but "generally" this is why"se" is used here for "earned"....
I guess you're right, but since "su" is so ambiguous couldn't this just as easily mean that she had gained her own love or rather she had learned to love herself?
I've never heard of "earning someone's love"; "She had won his love" sounds more natural to me (or, better still, "She had won his heart")
Below your post it says you posted this "1 month ago", but you refer to Jan 2014, not 2015. Does this mean we can't believe the "1 month ago" things?
BTW, "she had earned his love" was accepted March 2015.
Is there a smart person that could tell me why sometimes sentences use "se" between the Pronoun and the verb?
I entered that phrase "his love" and it was accepted 04/09/2018. For some reason the "word board" only had "their" in place of "his" for "su". I reported the error.
i think it's 'proper' english ..maybe a bit poetic..but it should be accpted...
"she had won herself your love" is neither proper nor poetic, especially not poetic.
'She had won his heart' seems as if it should be accepted, same meaning, just not literally.
Su agrees in number with the following noun: su amor, sus amores. Both su and sus may correspond to his, her, its or their depending on the subject.
If DL would ask to translate from the English "She had earned their love", how would i know to use "ganarse" and not "ganar"?
It must be her love in this context as no previous/current reference to him/it -- quoting previous right./wrong answers from the Owl.
Is there a simple explanation to why there are no accents on words like amor, arroz and azul?
iirc for pronunciation accents are used when the spoken pronunciation doesn't follow the rules - one of which is that when words end in a consonant other than n or s i think, then the last syllable is stressed. The words you mentioned above are pronounced according to the rules & so accents aren't required.