"Nunca he estado en Inglaterra."
Translation:I have never been to England.
"Never have I been to England" was wrong. It's just laughable at this point.
It is a bit awkward (even though 'correct'), in terms of word order, at least in my part of the English speaking world.
Its a more formal/literary style. There's a drinking game in the US called "never have I ever" where you take turns saying "never have I ever done something" and if other people have then they have to drink. "Never have I been to England" sounds A-OK to me.
I guess, we are supposed to translate into sentances with regular words order (since in Spanish it is a regular one). "Never have I been to England" has an inversion in it. It is correct, but it's not regular, it has emphasis on the word "never".
It just sounds a little flowery or poetic when you say "Never have I been to England." Not wrong.
I came here for this. I was going through that whole verse in my mind.
Think about it ' never have i been so in love' it is said ' never have i played golf that badly ' totally spoken totally native east midlander in england
Those sound correct, but in my region (USA, TN), we would say "I have never been so in love" or "I've never played golf that badly". Just word order.
"Never have I ever" is a game one plays with friends to pass the time and get to know each other. Should of worked. Texan.
"Never have I seen [a fight] where everyone came out stronger -- until now." -Senator Harry Reid on the Democratic Presidential primary in 2008.
Everyone claiming "never have I" sounds awkward is wrong, it is just used to emphasize the "never" aspect of the sentence.
I was marked wrong for "I have never been in England." Is "in" really wrong???