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  5. "Nós não nos vemos desde quar…

"Nós não nos vemos desde quarta-feira."

Translation:We have not seen each other since Wednesday.

May 4, 2013



Has anyone gone over the difference between meanings for nós and nos?


I am sure there is a faaaaar better explanation to this, but the first thing that pops into my head is that:

Nós = we
Nos = us (+ourselves/each other)

Let me know if you find an exception, but I think this is the simple way of explaining the difference.

(edit: thanks, paulenrique, I added your suggestions to the explanation!)


Yeah. Nos = ourselves


One's the subject, one's an object pronoun. That's the general idea, but there's a bit more to it.

"nós" is used as the subject of a sentence and after prepositions (para nós; to us, for us), whereas "nos" is used as the object of an action. "Eles nos usam para aprender portugues"; "They use us to learn Portuguese"

Do take what I say with a grain of salt. I'm still learning and it's perfectly possible that something I said is completely wrong.


Is there a difference in pronunciation between nos and nós? I do not hear any in the audio.


When we have ó, its a short sound, like "o" in hot. On the other hand, "nos" has a long sound, like "o" in boat. But, to be true, when we have a word ending in -os we normally pronounce that like "us" (in this case /nus/). In english, the us sound is oos. Got it?


We native English speakers tend to have a lot of problems with the "o" sounds in Portuguese. For me it's easier to think of the "open o" as the short o (and short sound) and "closed o" as the long o. "Long o" says its name as in boat, coke, hope.


Some "o" sounds: 1. "Nós" is pronounced approximately like "au" as in "sauce". 2. "Nos" is approximately like "oo" as in "book". 3. "Boca" is approximately like "oa" as in boat, but without a "u" sound in the end. 4. "Onça" is like the "o" in "boca", but it is nasalized.


We did not see each other since wednesday. <- This should be correct We do not see each other since wednesday. <- This is wrong but is marked as correct


Well, the thing is , in portuguese we do not have the "do" and "did" to change the verbal time of the sentence, so , somethings get a little hard to understand and explain, and sometimes it is cofusing.

I had problems to get it at first when i started to learn english.

But in this case for example, if you check both sentences in google translator or somewhere else, both will have the same translation.


I put "ourselves" and it was marked wrong. Grrr... Reported.


"We don't see ourselves" has a different meaning in english then "we don't see each other"; the first one could be true if the interlocutors were vampires or invisible men. :)

In Portuguese both meanings are expressed by the same sentence though, I am afraid.


Stupid question that most of you are probably getting, but Im not: why is there not a "temos" after nao?


It's not a stupid question at all. I can't give you the rule, since I'm learning this from the ground up like everyone else around here, but I've seen these enough to recognize a certain pattern. "Desde" is the trick to this sentence. It carries the temporal weight. Just like in English, if you use the word "since" then you are referencing to some past event or idea. Once you have that in place, the tense on the verb is much less important. In English we happen to use the present tense "have", but the meaning exists in Portuguese without it. The literal translation "We not each other see since Wednesday" is the proper grammar in Portuguese. Through tradition we say in English, "We have not seen..." In both cases, the word desde/since is the important reference.

(Note: Do not confuse this use of "since" with a common Americanism. Most of us often use "since" to mean "because," but that isn't correct (in formal English). Ex: "Since you know how to do this, I won't explain," would not translate to "Desde você..." but rather "Porque você..." EDIT: Or "Já que voce..." is okay, too. Go figure!)


Thanks davidalso. That clarifies it for me very much.


Well, the davidalso made a real good anwser. But i will try to explain a little more.

On our language (portuguese) we use have literaly, like:

She has a dog. I have a pen . etc.

It is not normal in portuguese use have if you are not saying some kind of possessive sentences. It is not wrong, but it is just uncommon.

And if you use it in a sentence that will change the verb , in english you normaly only changes the time of the verb to the past -ed and some exceptions, to a going action -ing and some exceptions and is it, i know you have will and other stuff to determine another times, but the verb itself still the same, in portuguese we have many more variations.

In this case if you want to use "have" the sentence would be : Nós não temos nos visto desde quarta-feira.

So the verb "see" (ver) , becomes from "vemos" to "visto" in case you add "have"(ter) to the sentence.

In english that will change the sentence to " We have not seen each other since wednesday"


Thanks, LZaqui. That's helpful!


so is the 'each other' implied by nós?


No, nós = we (open O) and "nos"(closed O and sometimes it sounds like OO) implies the meaning of "each other"


Nós: (we, us - subject pronoun) nos (we, us - object pronoun, unstressed sound), Nós: (we, us - after preposition)


I'm not sure how I'm supposed to get the past tense write when it hasn't been covered. It seems to happen only with 1st person plurals. I wish they would let us do the past tense much earlier or not use it in these exercises.

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