I have noticed this before and it seems that unless the verb (poder)'can' is in the sentence 'can' is not implied. Just learned from my mistakes so its an assumption.
i agree... best translation is "you see the differences?"... in English "do you see" is implied... but "can you see" is a totally different verb - albeit, in common usage either would probably be used..
"Do you see it?" and "Can you see it?" have the same meaning, but if you switched up the verb, those sentences can be very different. "Do/Can you love it?" "Do/Can you have it?" "Do/Can you make it?"
Just throwing in a different verb here might be fine, but you can't always do that. "Do" is the standard auxiliary verb for questions.
Hi Zinny, Just like you I thought "can" would be correct as well, but when I translated that back to Spanish I had added "puede" which changed the original sentence. "Do" doesn't change the sentence when translated back again.
Part of it is that a difference is a result of subtraction. The other part is that they choose a list of relevant words to put in a section, and then don't make sure they're being used in a relevant way.
That's right. The modal verb can is usually used along with the verbs that denote senses. And that goes, I believe, both for BrE and AmE.
Didn't any of you ever ask your teacher "can I use the bathroom?" and have them reply with a smirk "I don't know.. Can you?" I think if you ask someone if they "can" see the difference it's a much more specific question and in Spanish it could be the same way, even if most people see the difference as trivial.