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- "Nein, mir ist nicht danach."
80 Comments
Short answer: No difference.
Long answer: My German friend told me that Ich habe keine lust means I don't feel like it. Fast forward a few weeks, and I got this sentence. So it's safe to assume both are the same.
I think it's like saying "I don't feel like it" vs "I'm not in the mood for it"
There's no significant difference behind the meaning of these 2 sentences.
As I am about to reach level 11 now, I feel like doing the exercise of trying to explain the meaning of the sentence (even though I am sure that by now you could explain it to me much better).
Take the German sentence: Nein, mir (es) ist nicht danach (with an elliptical subject, of course), reorder it and consider that danach means “in connection with”, “accordingly”, or “related to”. It gives “No, it is not related to me” or “No, it does not connect with me”, which is more or less the sense of not feeling like something.
I hope I am not terribly wrong and this can help future learners.
283
replying to kyky, actually danach does not mean for that. Danach means after that. Es ist mir nicht danach (or mir ist nicht danach) literally means it is not after me or to me it is not afterwards. Someone above had it right, it's like English's I'm not into that, though in German the cases are different
764
Then why does Duo not write it this way? This confuses those of us who are trying to learn the basics here, only to have Duo throw in expressions that do nothing to teach us anything but confusion.
1156
I think of it more like, "It is cold to me," or "For me it is cold."
(Und auch, in Till's voice: "...So kalt!")
186
And why not, "No, I am not in the mood for that"? And I wish someone from Duolingo would explain what they mean by the "Stop the clutter!" message. How would one report "mistakes" in a way that the Stop-the-clutter scolder would prefer?
The phrase doesn't translate literally.
Word for word to get a feel of the grammar, the sentence would probably be something like "No, to me it is not thereafter" where the "it" is implied.
But this would be one of those cases where there's no value in translating it word for word like that, so you'd be better off just learning the meaning of the phrase altogether.
I'm confused about the use of "danach" in this sentence. In other sentences in this unit, it means "then", as in "then it is simple". Here it means "in connection with", or some such.
Can somebody explain what's going on? Are these really two (possibly related) usages or the same word, or two completely different words that happen to be spelled the same?
901
What the hell does "danach" translate to in this sentence? I'm getting really frustrated at all of these unexplained translations by Duolingo. NONE of them make sense at all! Bitte hilf mir
852
Does "I am not into that" make sense, literally?
Any way... If you go to the top of this "page" and start reading from there you will find very interesting remarks about the sentence "mir ist [es] nicht danach".
It is worth a look.
116
How does this literally translate? It seems like something like 'No, it is not me then.' Does this make sense to Germans?
207
I wrote "Nein, mir isst nicht danach." because I couldn't catch it from the normal speed correctly and the slowed down sounded like "isst", however, Duolingo did not correct me at all and it did not even mark it as a typo. I didn't report because I continued before reading this thread as I wasn't sure if it was a hearing typo or again some weird idiom DL likes to throw around, and now it's too late as I already finished with that skill.
347
I have no freaking clue how this german sentence means what it is translated to! danach - how does that fit in at all?
me is not afterwards! somehow = I do not feel like it! Totally confused!
Imagine saying "Ich fühle nicht wie es" (Literally "I don't feel like it") to a German. They would ask how it's possible to compare your sense of touch to some other object's sense of touch. "I don't feel like it" is an idiom that makes sense to us, but the words are nonsense to other languages.
That's all "mir ist nicht danach" is. It's an idiom which we don't share with German. It conveys the same idea, but the words make no sense to us.
Not too sure how long ago you've written this... but danach can be translated into 'in accordance'. So anyone reading this today (2020) you should dictionary words to see their alternate uses. This is likely not an idiom as many have suggested... it simply can be used to explain someone(thing)'s accordance.
"No, (it) is to me not in accordance"... where the es is implied seems ok.