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  5. "Sie hat zwei Bücher veröffen…

"Sie hat zwei Bücher veröffentlicht."

Translation:She has published two books.

May 5, 2013



Why not- She has two books published?

  • 2639

"She has two books published" translates as "Sie hat veranlaßt/dafür gesorgt, dass zwei Bücher veröffentlicht werden. (as in the old joke: The boss said to his partners: "I had the project finished" (Ich hatte dafür gesorgt, dass das Projekt zu Ende gebracht wurde)... but actually we, the staff, had worked very hard and finally we had finished the project" (wir hatten das Projekt beendet) :-)


I wish there was a jokes section to learning German.

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If you search the web there are a couple of useful sites about jokes/quotes in German and English. Why don't you try http://leicht-deutsch-lernen.com/jokes Enjoy


Well, they added Christmas / Flirt / Idioms lessons, they might add jokes too in the future.


Christmas would be great but I don't see it - I could "buy" idioms and flirting but no Weihnachten lessons... :(


The Christmas skill is usually available a few days before Christmas until a few days after it -- check back on the 20th or so of December.


Mizinamo, I have been checking but have not seen it offered. Aber, Frohe Weihnachten! (And do you know where I culd find a good/authentic Pfefferneusse recipe? Danke!)


I can't see it too. Impossible I missed it because I logged in everyday of December! :(


Yes, its a deeply established part of German culture..


Published and finished are very different. There is nothing wrong with saying "She has two books published". It's not ambiguous and can only mean one thing.


I agree, but the "correct" answer is ambiguous. "She published two books" could mean that she is the publisher or the writer. "She has two books published" is clear that she is the writer, not the publisher. Given that the latter is probably what was intended, "She has two books published" would be correct.


In the German sentence, it is clear that she is the publisher. The English sentence should reflect that. "She has two books published" is not only ambiguous on whether she published them herself (and hence translates the meaning poorly), it uses a different grammatical construction. Not a valid translation. See my main comment.


Your sentence is a grammatically correct sentence in English, but has a different meaning to Duolingo's sentence.


What about "She HAD two books published"?


The verb for "to publish something" is veröffentlichen. That means:

Ich veröffentliche ein Buch = "I publish a book". This means I am the publisher - the person doing the publishing.

So if I say in English "I get a book published" it means something different - that I organise for someone else to publish a book, like maybe I'm an agent representing an author, or maybe I'm the author myself. In German, this construction can most simply be expressed using lassen as a helping verb: Ich lasse ein Buch veröffentlichen = "I get a book published".

So, for anyone wondering:
Sie hat zwei Bücher veröffentlicht = "She published two books" (she was the publisher)
Sie lässt zwei Bücher veröffentlichen = "She gets two books published"
Sie ließ zwei Bücher veröffentlichen = "She got two books published"
Sie hat zwei Bücher veröffentlichen lassen = "She has had two books published"

The last example is getting pretty complex... kind of passive, kind of a modal verb, replacing the participle with the infinitive... Hoo boy! Learning German never ceases to be interesting!


Thank you! NOW I understand why my "She has two books published" is wrong! Thank you for your excellent examples and translations!


Thank you so much for this explanation. It might be 4 years later but it was a big help.


Does anyone else think that this translation is a bit awkward? As a native speaker, I think I'd more likely say (or hear) "She has had two books published".

This variant makes it clear than she did not publish them herself (which would be a rare thing to do), but that someone did it for her.


You should think more about language and kess about what's logical. After all, bears can wear skirts here!

You two examples use completely different tenses. Your brain translates stuff word for word and you end up with an English sentence which just happen to make sense but actually has a different structure from the original one in German.

She has two books published means She has two books which are/have been published (passive). Original means that she is the one who performed action of publishing on two books, so She has published two books.

Maybe she's a publusher and she just publushed someone else's books? Read the notes and keep in mind that thia form of past tense doesnt really correspond to English present perfect, despite the structures being quite similar.


"Maybe she's a publusher and she just publushed someone else's books?" Those must be really dirty books (makes her blush) :D Thanks for the new word in my vocabulary!


It would be a completely different tense to translate it that way.


Why doesn't "veröffentlicht" have the "ge-" prefix in the past tense here?


Check out the introduction page to this lesson on Duolingo's website (rather than an app). It explains a few rules, including this one which says that verbs with inseparable prefixes do not get ge- in the past participle. But, yes, then you need to know this verb has an inseparable prefix.


I'm STILL struggling with when to end the last verb with "t" (e.g., "veröffentlicht") and when to end the last verb with "en" (e.g., "veröffentlichen"). Is there a simple rule to distinguish when to end with one vs. the other?


I guess the simple answer is no but I think it helps to think of it in terms of English. English we have regular/weak verbs with a past participle in -ed (e.g. talked) and irregular/strong verbs with a past participle in -en (e.g. driven).

Weak verbs just add -ed for past tense and the participle whereas strong verbs change the vowel sound for (some of) the different tenses and add -en for the participle.

It is the same in German, except that weak verbs add -t instead of -ed. If you know that the verb forms change vowels sounds in any of the conjugations (e.g. between the infinitive, 3rd person singular, past tense, participle,...) then it is a strong verb with the participle in -en. If if doesn't change vowel sounds and follows the more regular (weak) conjugation pattern then the participle will end in -t. And if the verb has a direct English cognate then chances are you can infer the German verb type from its English equivalent.

Sorry if you know this already.


Thank you, I think that helps. So basically, if the word in English would end with -ed, end the German equivalent with a -t. But this part I don't understand: "If if doesn't change vowel sounds and follows the more regular (weak) conjugation pattern then the participle will end in -t." Could you give me an example?


The conjugation for weak/regular German verbs is just to add -t or -st endings to the stem of the verb without changing vowel sounds. So e.g. for the verb veröffentlichen:

Present: ich veröffentiche, du veröffentichst, er veröffentlicht
Preterite: ich veröffentlichte, du veröffentlichtest, er veröffentlichte
Past Participle: veröffentlicht

Let's compare to a strong/irregular verb, e.g. finden:

Present: ich finde, du findest, er findet
Preterite: ich fand, du fandest, er fand
Past Participle: gefunden

Weak/regular verbs always keep the vowel sound the same and just add -e ,-t, -st, -te, -test, -te and -t for the past participle.

Strong/irregular verbs change vowel sounds in different versions of the verb (see find, fand, fund) and always add -en for the past participle. Note that "find" in English has a past participle found (it used to be founden).

My point is that if you know that all the forms of a German verb have the same vowel sound then you know the past participle will end in -t, conversely if you know that at least one of the forms changes the vowel sound then the participle will end in -en. The vowel sound could change for any of the verb forms, e.g. for the verb lesen the er form is liest so the participle ends in -en.


She would only publish books if she owned a publishing company.
She has the books published by a publishing company. or She has two books published.


Exactly. Lots of arguing about the everything except the fact that you only publish books if you are a book publisher.


Anyone can publish their own books on the Internet these days. Anyway, as students our job is to learn the vocabulary and state the same thing in English, whether or not we agree with the sentiment of the sentence.


So how do you say "she has two books published" as in "two of her books have been published by someone else"?


If you want to stress that she arranged for someone else to publish them:
Sie hat dafür gesorgt, dass zwei Bücher veröffentlicht werden
(~"She arranged for two books to be published")

If you want to emphasise that she has two books which are published:
Sie hat zwei veröffentlichte Bücher
("She has two published books")


So how would you answer the question , 'How many books has she had published?'.... Answer: 'She has two books published'? Doe this not exist in German?


Wie viel Bücher hat sie veröffentlichen lassen? Sie hat zwei Bücher veröffentlichen lassen. Or: Sie hat zwei veröffentlichte Bücher.


What I wrote in effect says the same thing. She had two books published.


This is not correct. See my earlier comment.


This sentence uses "veröffentlicht," but a previous sentence uses "veröffentlichen": "Er wird die Zeitung kostenlos veröffentlichen." I have tried forever to understand when to use one at the end of a sentence vs. the other, but I haven't gotten a workable answer yet. Help?


Compare the English: "has published", "will publish".

One is past tense and uses the helping verb "have" / haben plus the past participle: hat veröffentlicht, "has published"

The other is future tense and uses the helping verb "will" / werden plus the infinitive (dictionary form): wird veröffentlichen, "will publish"


Yes! Thank you.


bf2010 Germans have no sense of humour, However, I think that according to this list Writers write etc so Publishers publish books so maybe she publishes her own books


So, is she an author or a publisher? I answered that she had two books published, and was corrected that she has published two books. Is she self-publishing or were those two books authored by someone other than she?


If you wrote "had" instead of "has" that's probably the reason it wasn't accepted. You can assume that she is an author and not self-publishing.


Thanks. I can't recall whether I used "had" or "has", but I'll pay more attention in future. As soon as I publish MY next book, I will throw around some terms with my friends.

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