Why require an article ("a") in the English version when the Spanish version does not have an article before "sotano"?????? I would like to know if this is a language issue I need to understand.
La casa no tiene un sótano, can also mean, the house doesn't have one basement. So then you could ask, does it have two? If you asked somebody, tienes un coche? They could answer, no, tengo dos coches. For this reason, you will often hear the article omitted, and it is very common to say, Tienes coche? You would basically be asking if they own a car... whether they owned 1 or 2 or 8 isn't important.
Just found out this is very similar to Chinese grammar. And this sentence can just directly translate into Chinese word by word. lol
It is not correct English to leave out the 'a' or 'an' in this context but appears to be acceptable Spanish. I am not sure yet exactly which contexts require the article and which allow it to be implied only in Spanish. This is a part of why I have started learn to translate phrases rather than just doing literal translation, an idea I have seen recommended several times in other threads.
THE HOUSE HAS NO BASEMENT is incorrect and THE HOUSE HAS NOT A BASEMENT is correct. lol
why, when you suggest a sotano can be a cellar or a basement have you rejected my answer of a cellar? Does it have to be used in a different context?