"They like the apples."
Translation:A ellos les gustan las manzanas.
Why "les" and not "los"? If "gustar" means "to please", wouldn't "they" be the direct object? Yet "les" is the indirect object form, not the direct object form. What's going on?
I missed this too... I think it's because "los" is neutral, but in this case "they" has to refer to people, so the indirect object can't be neutral? I'd be interested to know if "Las" is also accepted.
It's because gustar means to please, but would practically be translated here as 'to be pleasing to'. Les gustan las manzanas means the apples are pleasing to them.
Creo que si.... I got it wrong, but I don't see how the "A ellos" instead of just "Ellos" makes a difference.
Anyone else have better insight?
You have to have the "A" because it's a preposition. The literal translation would be "To them, the apples are pleasing." You have to remember that "gustar" means "to please" not "to like" even though we translate it as "like".
Hmm, that makes sense. But "Me gustan los caballos" as "The horses please me" just sounds bad.
hahaha! dude, that sounds wrong too! But I got what you mean. This is the most confusing topic for me. Always.
I'm not sure if you're implying a double entendre or just stating that it's grammatically strange. It's perfectly proper English, although to say "I like the horses" is much more common.
Yeah, "gustar" is literally "to be liked by." It's just really difficult for native English speakers to understand the conjugations, so substituting "to please" makes it much easier to understand the syntax.
The Spanish-English dictionaries say that "gustar" means "to be pleasing". For example http://www.spanishdict.com/translate/gustar
It's confusing for English speakers to say that "gustar" means "like". It makes us think that "I like the apple" should be translated as "Yo gusto la manzana". If we think of it as "to be pleasing", it's easier for us to understand why it is "La manzana me gusta", or "Me gusta la manzana".
That's not correct because in this case, "they" is the indirect object, not th subject. "Ellos* is a subjective form, and in this sentence, "Las manzanas" is the subject. It's confusing to us English-speakers, because we rarely see a subject at the end of a sentence.
claro... en ingles vamos a decir They like the apples... en castallano A ellos les gustan las manzanas porque, en realidad, las manzanas están dandoles muchisimo placer. ¡Qué ricos son las manzanas! Nature gives us pleasure. Si nos dudamos en casos así podemos pensar esta frase de una canción tradicional Y por eso los grandes amores de muchos colores ME GUSTAN A MI.
The personal a drives me insane. I know the theory but I never seem to able to apply it.
I am RIGHT there with you. I always come in the discussions and read when I get these wrong JUST in case someone says something that offers me a better clue. Most of the people who respond have an AMAZING grasp of grammar. That being said, what I like about this program (and ones like Rosetta Stone) is that you aren't relying on grammatical memorization to learn the language - it is more of a natural acquisition. For whatever reason, though, this "a" never comes naturally to me! :-P
Why does the sentence "A mi padres les gusta la cerveza" start with an "A" but this sentence does not? I understand that the first sentence translates to: "The beer is pleasing to my parents" but couldn't you do the same thing with this sentence? "The apples are pleasing to them?" Thanks!
Yes, you could say "A ellos les gustan las manzanas" but "ellos" is already implied by "les". In the other sentence, "les" implied a "they" but not necessarily "mis padres" so the "a mis padres" is necessary.
"Ellos gustan de las manzanas" is also correct, but i do not understand why you need the "de" If someone could comment and tell me I would appreciate it.
"Ellos les gustan las manzanas was marked wrong", but "Les gust an las manzanas" was correct?
You'd have to say "A ellos les gustan las manzanas". The subject of the sentence is "las manzanas".
the only difference between "Ellos les gustan las manzanas" and "les gustan las manzanas" is ellos...neither sentence had "A" ellos
"Ellos les gustan las manzanas" is wrong because you can't just put "Ellos les gustan". You have to put "A ellos les gustan".
I still don't feel that gives a reason (not that we always end up getting a reason beyond 'that's just the way it is'). Someone above stated you need the 'a' because it's pleasing TO them, but by that logic it would always be A ella and A el and A me gusta. We have been learning that 'a' is for a personal indicator of people close to you, and this one drops like a bomb when ellas and ellos have never been required to be personal before. I can, so far, only see this as an idiosyncrasy I must accept because no one has given a logical or grammatical explanation.
You need the "A" because it's a preposition. "A ellos les gustan las manzanas" is like saying "To them, the apples are liked by them." You could just say "Les gustan las manzanas" meaning "The apples are liked by them." The "A ellos" is to clarify who "les" refers to. It's redundant in this case, but necessary if you want to specify a certain "them." For example, if you wanted to specify that your parents liked the apples you would say "A mis padres les gustan las manzanas" meaning "To my parents, the apples are liked by them." It's a strange syntax for a native English speaker, but that is the proper grammar in Spanish.
you need A ellos when it's a normal pronoun is receiving the verb; with gustar you really usually les gustan, me gusta, te gusto, etc... remember that it is not I like, but it gives me pleasure in a literal translation from Me gusta (a mi).
why Les and not Nos? I'm so confused with any sentence that has to do with "like"
If it was "nos" it would be about "we/us". To figure out a "gustar" sentence, try switching it around so the subject (the part after "gustar") comes first, and then translating the the "gustar" part as "please".
"Les gustan las manzanas" = "Las manzanas les gustan" = "The apples please them" = "They like the apples".
I no longer want to eat my apple after reading all this. I appreciated the explanation of why "de" instead of "a." from k3nd0.
Three different answers to this in the last 4 minutes....can't go back and do a side by side but I think the English was the same each time. AND we can no longer comment on "Report a problem."